2. What is the major artery that supplies the kidneys? a. Carotid b. Portal c. Celiac axis d. Renal ANS: D

Transcription

1 Chapter 24: Urinary System MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What vascular structure is found between the afferent and efferent arterioles? a. Peritubular capillaries b. Renal artery c. Glomerulus d. Renal veins 2. What is the major artery that supplies the kidneys? a. Carotid b. Portal c. Celiac axis d. Renal 3. Which of the following is correct? a. One kidney b. One ureter c. Two urinary bladders d. One urethra 4. The urinary tract is lined with a. serous membrane. b. the renal capsule. c. mucous membrane. d. tubular epithelium. 5. The renal cortex descends between the pyramids as the a. pelvis. b. collecting ducts. c. calyces. d. renal columns. 6. The renal capsule a. lines the tubules. b. lines the urinary bladder. c. surrounds the kidneys. d. outlines the trigone. 7. Which blood vessel(s) is (are) primarily concerned with reabsorption? a. Renal artery b. Glomeruli c. Renal vein d. Peritubular capillaries

2 What is the urine-making structure of the kidney? a. Trigone b. Renal pyramid c. Renal capsule d. Nephron unit 9. Where does aldosterone exert its effects? a. Glomeruli b. Efferent arteriole c. Distal convoluted tubule d. Ascending limb (loop of Henle) 10. The efferent arterioles extend to become the a. peritubular capillaries. b. afferent arterioles. c. glomeruli. d. renal artery. 11. The proximal convoluted tubules extend to become the a. peritubular capillaries. b. collecting duct. c. descending limb (loop of Henle). d. glomeruli. 12. Urine flows from the ascending limb (loop of Henle) into the a. glomeruli. b. proximal convoluted tubule. c. distal convoluted tubule. d. ureter. 13. The calyces receive urine from the a. proximal convoluted tubule. b. collecting ducts. c. glomeruli. d. peritubular capillaries. 14. ADH exerts its effects primarily on the a. proximal convoluted tubule. b. afferent arteriole. c. collecting duct. d. renal pelvis.

3 The detrusor muscle is located in the a. urethra. b. renal pelvis. c. urinary bladder. d. glomeruli. 17. The word voiding refers to a. urine formation. b. catheterization. c. micturition. d. cystitis. 18. Which of the following words best describes the function of the urinary bladder? a. Filtration b. Storage c. Reabsorption d. Buffering of H Which structure is located between the renal pelvis and the urinary bladder? a. Urethra b. Trigone c. Urinary meatus d. Ureter 20. The urinary meatus is a part of the a. ureter. b. urinary bladder. c. urethra. d. collecting duct. 21. The detrusor muscle is concerned with a. urine formation. b. micturition. c. sodium reabsorption. d. potassium excretion. 22. Kaliuresis refers to the renal excretion of a. sodium. b. bicarbonate. c. water. d. potassium.

4 Natriuresis refers to the renal excretion of a. K +. b. Na +. c. water. d. bicarbonate. 24. The renal excretion of Na + is generally accompanied by the excretion of a. bicarbonate. b. water. c. albumin. d. renin. 26. Renin activates a. aldosterone. b. converting enzyme. c. angiotensinogen. d. angiotensin II. 27. Activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system a. reabsorbs K + and eliminates Na + in the urine. b. causes albuminuria. c. expands blood volume. d. causes hematuria. 28. Aldosterone a. depletes blood volume. b. causes potassium reabsorption. c. causes sodium excretion. d. causes Na + and water reabsorption. 30. The internal and external sphincters are associated with (the) a. renal pelvis. b. Bowman s capsule. c. juxtaglomerular apparatus. d. urinary bladder. 31. Which of the following is not located within the urinary bladder? a. Trigone b. Detrusor muscle c. Internal sphincter d. Calyces

5 Which of the following should not be found in the glomerular filtrate? a. Albumin b. Sodium c. Potassium d. Water 33. Which of the following is most likely to cause polyuria? a. Oversecretion of aldosterone b. Decreased glomerular filtration rate (GFR) c. Deficiency of ADH d. Activation of angiotensinogen 34. Which of the following is not true of ADH? a. Secreted by the posterior pituitary gland b. Secreted in response to low blood volume and concentrated plasma (as in dehydration) c. Causes the renal excretion of sodium, potassium, and water d. Deficiency causes diabetes insipidus 35. Which of the following is absorbed across the walls of the collecting duct under the influence of ADH? a. Potassium b. Urea c. Water d. Albumin 37. Which substance is filtered by the glomerulus and is excreted in the urine; a. Albumin b. Glucose c. Sodium d. Creatinine 38. Cystitis refers to inflammation of the a. kidneys. b. meatus. c. urinary bladder. d. renal pelvis. 39. Which of the following is found in the kidney? a. Detrusor muscle b. Trigone c. Nephron units d. Urethra

6 Bowman s capsule is part of the a. nephron unit. b. renal pelvis. c. collecting duct. d. urinary bladder. 41. What part of the nephron unit filters 180 L of water per day? a. Peritubular capillaries b. Glomeruli c. Calyces d. Trigone 42. Creatinine is a. completely reabsorbed by the peritubular capillaries. b. a waste product that is filtered and not reabsorbed. c. a renal enzyme that activates angiotensinogen. d. a renal hormone that stimulates red blood cell production by the bone marrow. 43. A diuretic a. causes the excretion of sodium and water in the urine. b. causes hyperglycemia. c. blocks the effects of PTH. d. stimulates the reabsorption of sodium by the peritubular capillaries. 44. Which of the following occurs at the distal convoluted tubule? a. 180 L of water is filtered into the tubules. b. Renin is secreted. c. Urine flows from the distal convoluted tubule into the ascending loop of Henle. d. Sodium and water are reabsorbed. 45. Which of the following terms refers to the voluntary expulsion of urine? a. Polyuria b. Diuresis c. Micturition d. Dialysis 46. With regard to reabsorption, which structure plays the most important role? a. Glomeruli b. Renal pelvis c. Urinary bladder d. Peritubular capillaries

7 ADH a. is secreted by the anterior pituitary gland. b. is a mineralocorticoid that is secreted by the adrenal cortex. c. stimulates the collecting duct to reabsorb water. d. increases the GFR. 48. Low levels of oxygen stimulate the kidneys to secrete which hormone? a. Renin b. Aldosterone c. Erythropoietin d. Converting enzyme 50. Under normal conditions, which substance is present in the urine? a. Creatinine b. Fibrinogen c. Myosin d. Albumin 53. Aldosterone a. is secreted by the posterior pituitary gland. b. acts on the collecting duct blocking the reabsorption of water. c. stimulates the reabsorption of water, but has no effect on potassium. d. is a mineralocorticoid that stimulates the reabsorption of sodium. 54. Which of the following is caused by a deficiency of erythropoietin? a. Oliguria b. Anemia c. Albuminuria d. Cystitis 56. What is the meaning of an elevated serum creatinine? a. The kidneys are making too much creatinine. b. Too much creatinine is being reabsorbed by the peritubular capillaries. c. The kidneys are not filtering creatinine; this is a sign of kidney failure. d. The kidneys are excreting too much urine. 57. A drug is classified as a diuretic. Most likely, the drug a. decreases the GFR. b. blocks the tubular reabsorption of Na +. c. activates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. d. causes the release of ADH.

8 Which condition is characterized by hematuria and pyuria? a. Renal failure b. Diuresis c. Urinary retention d. Cystitis 59. Renal failure causes anemia because of a. a lack of erythropoietin. b. gross hematuria. c. uremia-induced hemolysis. d. uremia-induced hypokalemia. 60. The urinary bladder a. contains only skeletal muscle. b. receives urine from two urethras. c. causes diuresis in response to ADH deficiency. d. causes micturition when the detrusor muscle contracts and the internal sphincter relaxes. 61. When the arterial blood pressure declines to 70/50 mm Hg, a. GFR decreases. b. diuresis occurs. c. aldosterone secretion decreases. d. ADH secretion diminishes. 62. What happens at the glomerular membrane? a. Water and dissolved solute are filtered into Bowman s capsule. b. The JGA cells release ADH. c. The JGA cells release aldosterone. d. Na + is reabsorbed. 63. The distal convoluted tubule a. receives urine from the collecting duct. b. reabsorbs Na + and water in response to aldosterone. c. is the nephron structure that is primarily associated with filtration. d. empties its urine into Bowman s capsule. 64. A patient with stenosis (narrowing) of the renal artery is most likely to present with a. uremia. b. hypertension. c. albuminuria, hypoalbuminemia, and edema. d. glucosuria.

9 Micturition a. is another term for urination. b. occurs across the glomerular membrane. c. is the opposite of voiding. d. All of the above are true. 66. Which of the following is true of glomerular function? a. It is unaffected by the blood pressure. b. It is concerned with the filtration of 1.5 L/24 hr (of water). c. A decline in GFR (glomerular filtration rate) causes polyuria. d. An increase in GFR increases urine formation. 67. A deficiency of aldosterone causes a decrease in the tubular reabsorption of sodium and water, causing a significant decrease in blood volume and a. azotemia and uremia. b. generalized edema. c. hypotension. d. anemia. 68. Which of the following is true of aldosterone? a. It is an androgen. b. It is the salt-retaining hormone. c. It causes the tubular reabsorption of sodium, potassium, and water. d. All of the above are true. 69. Which of the following urine-making processes occurs first? a. Urine concentration by the collecting ducts b. Glomerular filtration c. Reabsorption of Na + d. Secretion of K Which of the following is false with regard to normal urine? a. Normal urine has E. coli as part of its normal flora. b. Urinary tract infections are more common in alkaline urine than in acid urine. c. Urine does not contain glucose. d. Urine does not contain significant amounts of albumin. 71. Glucosuria is most likely to cause a. hyperglycemia. b. uremia and azotemia. c. polyuria and dehydration. d. hematuria and anemia.

10 Renin a. is a hormone secreted by the posterior pituitary gland. b. is called converting enzyme. c. activates angiotensinogen. d. Two of the above are true. 73. Angiotensin II a. is secreted by the JGA cells in the kidney. b. is converted to angiotensin I by renin. c. is a potent vasoconstrictor. d. inhibits the release of aldosterone from the adrenal cortex. 74. Most tubular reabsorption takes place a. across the glomerular membrane. b. in response to aldosterone. c. in response to ADH. d. across the proximal tubule. 75. A drug that blocks the effects of aldosterone a. decreases the reabsorption of Na + and water. b. is kaliuretic. c. causes oliguria. d. Two of the above are true. 76. Glucose is not normally excreted in the urine because a. glucose cannot be filtered. b. all filtered glucose is reabsorbed. c. glucose is used up by the metabolizing nephron units. d. glucose is converted to ammonia in the distal tubule and excreted as urea. 80. An anticholinergic (muscarinic antagonist) drug, such as atropine, prevents both the relaxation of the urinary sphincter and the contraction of the detrusor muscle. You would therefore observe the patient for signs of a. uremia. b. urinary suppression. c. urinary retention. d. nephrotic syndrome.

11 Urea is a. transported from the liver to the kidneys by the blood. b. made in the liver. c. excreted by the kidneys. d. All of the above are true. 83. An elevated serum creatinine level is most indicative of a. urinary retention. b. declining renal function. c. urinary bladder infection. d. renal calculi

12 24-12 Chapter 25: Water, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is true about interstitial fluid, plasma, lymph, and transcellular fluid? a. Contain no electrolytes b. Protein-free fluids c. Classified as extracellular d. ph less than 6 (highly acidic) 2. Which of the following forms the greatest extracellular fluid compartment? a. Lymph b. Interstitial c. Plasma d. Transcellular 3. Which fluid compartment is located between the cells and is also called tissue fluid? a. Lymph b. Plasma c. Interstitial d. Transcellular 4. Which of the following is descriptive of normal saline? a. Distilled water b. 0.9% sodium chloride c. Highly acidic d. Contains albumin 5. Which of the following is most likely to occur when output exceeds intake? a. Diuresis b. Polyuria c. Hematuria d. Dehydration 6. Water and chloride usually follow the movement of which cation? a. Bicarbonate b. Sodium c. Potassium d. Albumin 7. Poor skin turgor is most indicative of a. cystitis. b. acidosis. c. edema. d. dehydration.

13 Kaliuresis refers to the urinary loss of a. water. b. albumin. c. potassium. d. sodium. 9. K + a. is a cation. b. is an acid. c. neutralizes H +. d. is the chief extracellular cation. 10. Bicarbonate (HCO 3 ) is considered an anion because it a. contains hydrogen. b. contains carbon. c. contains oxygen. d. carries a negative charge. 11. Which of the following can be defined as an H + donor? a. Ion b. Tincture c. Acid d. Bicarbonate 12. Which of the following acts as a base? a. H + b. OH c. Calcium ion d. Gastric juice 13. Excess diuresis is most likely to cause a. edema. b. overhydration. c. blood volume depletion. d. acidosis. 14. Which of the following is most likely to occur when output is less than intake? a. Dehydration b. Edema c. Hypovolemia d. Polyuria

14 Hypoventilation is most likely to cause a. acidosis. b. edema. c. renal excretion of bicarbonate. d. hypokalemia. 16. Which of the following is not a function of the lungs? a. Oxygenation of blood b. Excretion of carbon dioxide c. Secretion of aldosterone and the regulation of Na + d. Regulation of blood ph 17. Hyperventilation is most likely to cause a. a blood ph higher than b. diuresis. c. edema. d. acidosis. 18. Metabolic acidosis, such as diabetic ketoacidosis, is most likely to cause a. hypoventilation. b. Kussmaul respirations. c. the renal excretion of bicarbonate. d. the renal retention of H Most body water is located within which space? a. Interstitial b. Intravascular c. Intracellular d. Transcellular 20. Which of the following is not true of extracellular fluid? a. Most body water is extracellular. b. Plasma is extracellular fluid. c. Transcellular fluid is extracellular. d. There is more interstitial fluid than intravascular fluid. 21. Which ion determines ph? a. Sodium b. Hydrogen c. Bicarbonate d. Potassium

15 Hyperkalemia refers to an increase in the blood levels of which ion? a. Hydrogen b. Bicarbonate c. Calcium d. Potassium 23. Retention of which ion causes water retention and edema formation? a. Potassium b. Hydrogen c. Sodium d. Bicarbonate 24. More than 99% of which cation is stored in the bones and teeth? a. Potassium b. Hydrogen c. Chloride d. Calcium 25. Which of the following is the chief extracellular cation? a. Chloride b. Calcium c. Sodium d. Potassium 26. Which ion determines the resting membrane potential of nerve and muscle? a. Sodium b. Calcium c. Hydrogen d. Potassium 27. Most diuretics increase urine production by blocking the effects of which cation? a. Calcium b. Bicarbonate c. Chloride d. Sodium 28. Which hormone causes the kidneys to retain sodium and to excrete potassium? a. ADH b. Erythropoietin c. Aldosterone d. PTH

16 Which hormone stimulates the kidneys to reabsorb calcium and to excrete phosphate? a. ADH b. Aldosterone c. Parathyroid hormone d. Erythropoietin 30. Respiratory rate is most sensitive to the effects of which ion? a. Na + b. K + c. H + d. Cl 32. Which of the following is characteristic of acidosis? a. ph of 7.55 b. A decrease in the concentration of hydrogen ion in the blood c. Urinary excretion of bicarbonate d. ph less than Which of the following is most likely to develop in a patient who hypoventilates because of a chronic respiratory disease, such as emphysema? a. Kussmaul respirations b. A decrease in the plasma concentration of hydrogen ion c. An increase in plasma ph d. Acidosis 34. Which of the following is most likely to develop in an anxious hyperventilating patient? a. Respiratory acidosis b. Alkalosis c. A decrease in plasma ph d. Ketoacidosis 35. Which condition is caused by vomiting stomach contents? a. Hyperkalemia b. Hypernatremia and blood volume expansion c. Hypocalcemic tetany d. Alkalosis 37. Which of the following is a buffer pair? a. PTH, aldosterone b. ADH, ANF c. HCO 3, H 2 CO 3 d. Sodium, potassium

17 What does urinary specific gravity measure? a. Plasma H + concentration b. Hydration status of the body c. Plasma potassium d. The buffering capacity of the blood 39. A patient is admitted with severe emphysema and a PO 2 of 85. He also has a blood ph of 7.25 and a serum bicarbonate of 40 meq/liter. Which of the following is the most accurate? a. Metabolic acidosis and respiratory compensation b. Metabolic alkalosis with a respiratory compensation c. Respiratory alkalosis with a renal compensation d. Respiratory acidosis with a renal compensation 44. Which of the following best indicates the role of albumin in water balance? a. Blocks the renal reabsorption of Na + b. Enhances the renal excretion of K + c. Maintains plasma oncotic pressure d. Plugs up capillary pores, keeping water in the plasma 46. Which of the following is (are) true of Na +? a. Is the chief extracellular anion b. Helps regulate extracellular volume c. Is regulated by ADH d. All of the above 50. A patient with pulmonary edema is receiving furosemide (Lasix), a kaliuretic diuretic. He has lost 6.6 lb over a 48-hr period. Which statement is true? a. His urinary output has decreased. b. He has lost water weight. c. He will become hyperkalemic if the furosemide is continued. d. The loss of 6.6 lb causes tenting. 51. Aldosterone a. is released in response to hypovolemia. b. causes Na + excretion. c. causes K + reabsorption. d. determines the permeability of the collecting duct to water. 52. A drug that decreases the synthesis of Aldosterone also a. decreases blood pressure. b. causes hypernatremia. c. causes hypokalemia. d. does all of the above.

18 The determination of daily weights is used to monitor a. serum K +. b. diuretic therapy. c. concentration of plasma protein. d. ph. 57. Which of the following is an example of metabolic acidosis with a respiratory compensation? a. Morphine overdose and diuresis b. Persistent vomiting and hypoventilation c. Ketoacidosis and Kussmaul respirations d. Hypocalcemic tetany and hyperventilation 58. Which of the following is most likely to cause acidosis? a. Persistent vomiting b. Accumulation of plasma H + c. Renal loss of albumin d. Diuresis 59. A change of ph from 7.40 to 7.25 a. is indicative of expanded blood volume. b. is indicative of alkalosis. c. reflects an increase in the amount of H + in the blood. d. is within normal limits. 61. A patient is ventilating at a rate of 8 to 10 respirations/min, having been heavily medicated for pain. Which of the following is true? The patient is (may) a. develop a respiratory acidosis. b. experiencing Kussmaul respirations. c. experiencing diuresis. d. likely to develop a metabolic alkalosis.

19 24-19 Chapter 26: Reproductive Systems 1. The seminiferous tubules a. are located in the pelvic cavity. b. are tightly coiled structures that produce sperm. c. secrete testosterone. d. are primarily concerned with ejaculation. 2. The scrotum a. makes sperm. b. is a sac located between the thighs and holds the testicles. c. secretes androgens. d. contains the prostate gland and urethra. 3. What is the coiled structure that sits on top of the testes; it is a place where sperm mature? a. Scrotum b. Epididymis c. Prostate gland d. Prepuce 4. Which term refers to the penis and scrotum? a. External genitals b. Gonads c. Gametes d. Zygotes 5. Which piece of skin, also called the foreskin, is removed during circumcision? a. Scrotum b. Penis c. Epididymis d. Prepuce 6. Which structure carries both urine and semen? a. Vagina b. Urethra c. Ejaculatory duct d. Vas deferens 8. Which cells secrete testosterone? a. Prostate gland b. Prepuce c. Interstitial cells d. Seminiferous tubules

20 What state is caused by the filling of erectile tissue with blood? a. Impotence b. Orgasm c. Erection d. Emission 10. What is the androgen that is necessary for sperm formation and for the development of the male secondary sex characteristics? a. ACTH b. Progesterone c. Chorionic gonadotropin d. Testosterone 11. Which term refers to the movement of sperm and glandular secretions from the testes and genital ducts into the urethra? a. Ejaculation b. Emission c. Orgasm d. Erection 12. Which hormone is also called interstitial cell stimulating hormone and stimulates the interstitial cells to secrete testosterone? a. FSH b. Estrogen c. Luteinizing hormone d. Chorionic gonadotropin 13. Which of the following is the skin-covered muscular region located between the vaginal orifice and anus? a. Hymen b. Perineum c. Fallopian tubes d. Fimbriae 14. Implantation of the pre-embryo occurs within which organ? a. Ovaries b. Fallopian tubes c. Oviducts d. Uterus

21 The placenta forms in which organ? a. Uterus b. Fallopian tube c. Vagina d. Perineum 16. The cervix is part of which organ? a. Uterus b. Fallopian tube c. Vagina d. Perineum 17. The myometrium and the endometrium are layers of which structure? a. Ovaries b. Uterus c. Fallopian tubes d. Vagina 18. Which of the following consists of a midpiece, head, and flagellum? a. Zygote b. Ovum c. Corpus luteum d. Sperm 19. The fundus forms the upper part of which structure? a. Vagina b. Corpus luteum c. Graafian follicle d. Uterus 20. On what organ is the corpus luteum found? a. Uterus b. Fallopian tube c. Ovary d. Vagina 21. If implantation occurs within the fallopian tube, the pregnancy is described as a. normal. b. ectopic. c. embryonic. d. menstrual.

22 Which of the following is referred to as external genitals? a. Gonads b. Vulva c. Oviducts d. Perineum 23. What is the target of FSH and LH? a. Uterus b. Vagina c. Ovaries d. Cervix 24. Which hormone promotes the maturation of the egg and helps develop the female characteristics? a. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hcg) b. Androgen c. Estrogen d. Interstitial cell stimulating hormone 26. What is the primary secretion of the corpus luteum? a. FSH b. hcg c. Progesterone d. Androgen 27. What is the midcycle event stimulated by a surge of LH? a. Orgasm b. Menstruation c. Emission d. Ovulation 28. What is the uterine lining called that is most responsive to the hormonal effects of estrogen and progesterone? a. Perineum b. Myometrium c. Fundus d. Endometrium 29. Which of the following is true of the ovaries and the testes? a. Secrete gonadotropins b. Located in the pelvic cavity c. Called gametes d. Called gonads

23 Which of the following is true of the ova and sperm? a. Called gonads b. Incapable of meiosis c. Called gametes d. Require androgens for maturation 31. Which structure is the major producer of testosterone? a. Corpus luteum b. Testes c. Anterior pituitary gland d. Adrenal medulla 32. Which structure contains 23 chromosomes? a. A fertilized ovum b. The corpus luteum c. A sperm d. The corpus albicans 33. Which structure secretes the gonadotropins? a. Adrenal cortex b. Testes c. Anterior pituitary gland d. The ovum 34. Where are sperm produced? a. Vas deferens b. Ejaculatory duct c. Urethra d. Seminiferous tubules 35. Which of the following is true of the vas deferens, ejaculatory duct, and the urethra? a. Located in the scrotum b. Located in the testes c. Produce sperm d. Carry sperm 36. Which structure surrounds the upper portion of the urethra and contributes to the formation of semen? a. Cowper s glands b. Adenohypophysis c. Seminal vesicles d. Prostate gland

24 Which of the following can be detected by a rectal exam? a. An enlarged prostate gland b. Cystitis c. Sterility d. Gonorrhea 38. Which of the following is not located in or on the ovary? a. Corpus luteum b. Graafian follicle c. Fertilized ovum d. Corpus albicans 39. The cervix, fundus, and body a. are contents of the scrotum. b. are parts of the ovary. c. secrete estrogen and progesterone. d. are parts of the uterus. 40. Which structure is the primary secretor of estrogen and progesterone? a. Corpus albicans b. Endometrium c. Ovaries d. Anterior pituitary gland 41. The broad ligament supports the a. prostate gland. b. testes. c. breasts. d. uterus. 42. The oviduct or fallopian tube a. is located between the cervix and the vagina. b. is the site of fertilization. c. is an anatomical extension of the ovary. d. connects the fundus with the cervix. 43. The acrosome a. secretes testosterone. b. is the tail of the sperm. c. contains enzymes that assist the sperm to fertilize an ovum. d. is an ovarian structure.

25 Semen a. is formed and stored within the scrotum. b. contains only testosterone. c. means seed. d. is made and stored within the prostate gland. 45. Which of the following always occurs during an erection? a. Ejaculation b. Secretion of testosterone c. Spermatogenesis d. Engorgement of the erectile tissue of the penis with blood 46. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) a. is secreted by the ovaries and testes. b. is secreted by the posterior pituitary gland. c. exerts its effects primarily on the endometrium. d. stimulates the female and male gonads. 47. What is detected by a Pap smear? a. Cancer of the cervix b. Cystitis c. Genital warts d. Genital herpes 48. Which of the following is most likely to cause sterility in the female? a. Benign prostatic hypertrophy b. Cystitis c. Repeated bouts of gonorrhea d. Torn hymen 49. A woman is likely to develop a vaginal yeast infection after taking antibiotics because they a. weaken the hymen and allow pathogens to enter the vagina. b. alter the normal flora of the vagina. c. contain pathogens that migrate to the vagina from the blood. d. cannot kill microorganisms that grow in the vagina. 50. Which hormone stimulates the secretion of testosterone? a. FSH b. LH or ICSH c. Estrogen d. Human chorionic gonadotropin

26 The interstitial cells a. secrete testosterone. b. are located within the prostate gland. c. produce sperm. d. line the ejaculatory ducts. 52. Severing the vas deferens a. interferes with testosterone secretion and therefore causes feminization. b. prevents erection. c. prevents orgasm. d. induces sterility. 55. Estrogen and progesterone are a. gonadotropins. b. secreted by the trophoblastic cells as they implant in the uterine wall. c. secreted by the ovaries. d. hormonal stimuli for the release of FSH and LH. 56. In the nonpregnant state, a. the corpus albicans becomes hormonally active, secreting estrogen and progesterone. b. the endometrium secretes hcg. c. hormonal secretion of the corpus luteum gradually declines. d. the zygote becomes hormonally active. 58. The corpus luteum a. is located within the uterus. b. is a placental structure. c. secretes gonadotropins. d. secretes large amounts of progesterone. 59. If implantation occurs within the fallopian tube, the a. greatest concern is the placenta previa. b. pregnancy is described as ectopic. c. pregnancy is considered normal. d. woman will continue to menstruate throughout the 9 months of fetal growth. 60. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hcg) a. promotes the maturation of the egg. b. is responsible for female characteristics. c. maintains the corpus luteum. d. promotes the transformation of the corpus luteum into the corpus albicans.

27 In the absence of human chorionic gonadotropin, a. the corpus albicans starts secreting progesterone. b. the rate of placental development accelerates. c. labor is initiated. d. the corpus luteum deteriorates into the corpus albicans. 64. The luteal phase of the ovarian cycle a. is responsible for menstruation. b. is responsible for the uterine secretory phase. c. elevates plasma levels of estrogen, progesterone, and hcg. d. precedes the LH surge. 65. The endometrium a. is the uterine lining that is most responsive to the hormonal effects of estrogen and progesterone. b. is the target of FSH and LH. c. forms the graafian follicle. d. is responsive to oxytocin during labor. 66. The zygote a. implants within the uterine lining. b. matures into the graafian follicle. c. is the fertilized ovum. d. is formed within the uterus. 67. The proliferative phase of the uterine cycle a. describes the deterioration of the corpus luteum into the corpus albicans. b. is primarily caused by the hormonal effects of progesterone. c. is primarily caused by the hormonal effects of hcg. d. refers to the estrogen-induced thickening of the endometrium. 68. The graafian follicle a. matures within the fallopian tube. b. is the mature follicle. c. secretes gonadotropins. d. causes the midcycle surge of LH. 69. The secretory phase of the uterine cycle a. is the endometrial response to progesterone. b. immediately follows the menstrual phase. c. refers to the hormonal response of the endometrium to the corpus albicans. d. refers to the adenohypophyseal response to declining plasma levels of estrogen and progesterone.

28 Menstruation occurs in response to a. an LH surge. b. diminished plasma levels of estrogen and progesterone. c. elevated plasma levels of hcg. d. elevation of plasma levels of FSH and LH. 71. The embryo a. refers to the baby-to-be from weeks 3 to 8. b. is the single-cell fertilized ovum. c. lives most of its life in the fallopian tube. d. refers to the fetus during the second trimester. 73. Which of the following is least true of or least associated with the placenta? a. The site at which baby-to-be breathes b. A very vascular structure c. Replaces the glandular secretion of the corpus luteum d. Nourishes the zygote as it matures into the morula 75. Which group is incorrect? a. Phases of the ovarian cycle: follicular phase, luteal phase b. Phases of the uterine cycle: menstrual phase, proliferative phase, secretory phase c. Reproductive hormones: estrogen, progesterone, hcg, testosterone d. External genitals: penis, scrotum, labia, mons pubis, cervix