Part A: Multiple choice

Transcription

1 Part A: Multiple choice All multiple-choice questions must be answered on the Part A Response Page included in your test. Read each question carefully and decide which of the choices BEST completes the statement or answers the question. Locate the question number on the Response Page and place your answer in the corresponding blank. 1. Which of the following statements about the particle theory of matter is not correct? A. Particles in matter are always moving. B. There are no spaces between the particles. C. All particles in a pure substance are the same. D. All matter is made up of very small particles called atoms. 2. Which of the following statements about states of matter is not correct? A. Particles are loosely packed in a gas. B. Particles do not move at all in a solid. C. Particles in a liquid move around. D. Particles in a gas bounce off each other. Use the following symbols to answer questions 3 to Which safety symbol means danger, flammable? A. Symbol 1 B. Symbol 2 C. Symbol 3 D. Symbol 4 4. Which safety symbol means corrosive material? A. Symbol 1 B. Symbol 2 C. Symbol 3 D. Symbol 4

2 5. Which symbols are Hazardous Household Product Symbols? A. Symbols 1 and 2 B. Symbols 1 and 3 C. Symbols 1 and 4 D. Symbols 2 and 4 6. Elements along the staircase line in the periodic table are called A. non-metals B. metalloids C. metals D. gases 7. A property that describes a metallic element is A. brittle B. lacks luster C. good conductor of heat and electricity D. probable a gas at normal temperature and pressure 8. The decomposition of water shows that A. water can boil at a temperature lower than 100 C B. elements can be separated into simpler substances C. elements can be combined to form atoms D. compounds can be separated into simpler substances 9. The letters in a chemical formula for a compound tell you A. the state of matter B. which elements are in the compound C. the proportion of elements in the compound D. the number of atoms of each element in the compound 10. The chemical formula CH 4 contains which of the following? A. a total of four atoms B. one carbon atom and one hydrogen atom C. one oxygen atom and four hydrogen atoms D. one carbon atom and four hydrogen atoms

3 11. An example of a solution is A. sand and salt B. sugar and water C. concrete D. sugar and salt 12. The amount of a solute in a given volume of solvent is called the A. solubility of the solution B. conductivity of the solution C. concentration of the solution D. density of the solution 13. The following are the results of four samples that have been tested with a ph meter. Solution 1: ph = 2.7 Solution 2: ph = 9.8 Solution 3: ph = 7.0 Solution 1: ph = 4.9 Which of the following descriptions best matches the results, starting with Solution 1 and ending with Solution 4? A. base, acid, base, base B. acid, base, acid, acid C. acid, base, neutral, acid D. neutral, base, base, acid 14. Which of the following properties represents an acid? A. slippery and tastes sour B. slippery and tastes bitter C. tastes sour and turns blue litmus paper red D. tastes bitter and turns red litmus paper blue 15. The part of air that is involved in the corrosion of metals is A. nitrogen B. carbon dioxide C. hydrogen D. oxygen

4 16. Which property is common to both acids and bases? A. corrosive B. tastes sour C. reacts with metals D. feels slippery 17. Food colouring spreads out more quickly in hot water than in cold water because A. the particles in hot water are moving faster B. hot water has more particles moving around in it C. the spaces between the particles in hot water are larger D. the particles in hot water are slippery, allowing the food colouring to move between them 18. The sum of all the kinetic energies of all the particles of a substance is called A. heat B. temperature C. potential energy D. kinetic energy 19. A form of heat transfer that requires contact between two items is A. conduction B. convection C. radiation D. electromagnetic waves 20. Air above a heated stove element feels hot due to heat transfer by A. conduction B. convection C. radiation D. electromagnetic waves 21. A cook takes a pizza out of the oven using a long wooden spatula. Why is the spatula made of wood rather than metal? A. Wood is a poorer insulator than metal B. Wood is a poorer conductor of heat than metal C. Wood absorbs more heat than metal D. Metal is better but wood is cheaper

5 22. A sea breeze is cool at the beach because A. it brings cool air from over the land B. it brings cool air from the mountain tops C. it brings cool air from over the water D. it brings cool air from high altitudes 23. An example of using heat transfer technology is A. radiators on motor vehicles B. air conditioning C. refrigeration D. all of the above 24. Your feet get hot on the sand on a hot sunny day at the beach because A. sand has a low specific heat capacity B. sand has a high specific heat capacity C. sand has small grains D. sand is a solid 25. Containers of material are used to absorb heat during the day and release it at night in a solar heated greenhouse. Which material is best for this purpose because of its heat capacity? A. oil B. sand C. stones D. water 26. The best insulation to keep a house cool in summer is A. wood shavings with R-value of 8.47 B. fiberglass with R-value of C. solid wood with R-value of 4.38 D. concrete with R-value of Traditional Caribou Inuit clothing is warm because A. it has the fur turned to the inside B. it is made with several layers C. it is loose fitting D. all of the above

6 28. Work is done when you A. sit and read a book B. push on a very large boulder C. hold a pail of water still for one minute D. pull your younger sister in a wagon 30 m along the driveway 29. Which of the following is not a type of energy? A. nuclear B. temperature C. potential D. heat 30. The correct order of the parts of a first class lever is A. effort, fulcrum, load B. effort, load, fulcrum C. fulcrum, effort, load D. load, effort, fulcrum 31. Which of the following is an example of a third class lever? A. wheelbarrow B. scissors C. pliers D. hockey stick 32. Which of the following is not a force multiplier? A. pliers B. fishing rod C. scissors D. hammer pulling a nail 33. A wrench turning a nut is an example of A. fixed pulley B. distance multiplier C. wheel and axle D. third class lever

7 34. A comparison of the work a machine does with the amount of energy it uses to do that work is called A. distance multiplier B. efficiency C. a fulcrum D. effort 35. Which of the following uses light to magnify an object? A. compound microscope B. hand lens C. scanning electron microscope D. transmission electron microscope 36. The part of a microscope that magnifies the image is the A. diaphragm B. light source C. objective lens D. fine adjustment knob 37. There are certain activities that are common to all cellular life. What are they called? A. cell theories B. cellular resources C. life abilities D. life processes 38. The parts of a cell that carry out the life functions of the cell are called A. tissues B. organs C. molecules D. organelles 39. Which of the following is not part of accepted cell theory? A. all living things are made up of cells B. all organisms are made up of only one cell C. all cells are reproduced from other living cells D. cells are responsible for function and structure in all living things

8 40. A part that distinguishes a plant cell from an animal cell is the A. vacuole B. golgi body C. cell wall D. cell membrane 41. The part of a plant or animal cell that controls all the activities of the cell is the A. nucleus B. mitochondrion C. cytoplasm D. golgi body 42. The function of the cytoplasm in plant and animal cells is to A. transport materials B. release energy in the cell C. hold all other organelles in place D. store water, food, and waste 43. The processes of cellular respiration and photosynthesis are different in that A. cellular respiration is a process of animal cells only B. cellular respiration stores energy, whereas photosynthesis releases energy C. cellular respiration releases energy, whereas photosynthesis stores energy D. cellular respiration uses carbon dioxide and water, whereas photosynthesis releases carbon dioxide and water 44. Which of the following most likely describes someone suffering from malnutrition? A. someone who lacks protein in their diet B. someone who follows the Canada s Food Guide C. someone who follows a vegetarian food guide D. someone who eats a variety of foods 45. A problem with vegetarian diets is that vegetarian diets are A. high in fat B. low in fibre C. high in iron and vitamin B D. low in iron and vitamin B

9 46. The organ that absorbs water, vitamins, and minerals is the A. stomach B. liver C. large intestine D. small intestine 47. High cholesterol in the bloodstream often results from which of the following? A. lack of exercise B. a diet high in animal fats C. smoking and drinking alcoholic beverages D. a diet high in protein and carbohydrates 48. Most of the digestion of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins occurs in the A. stomach B. liver C. large intestine D. small intestine 49. Which of the following is not a result of excessive smoking? A. formation of gallstones B. heartburn and indigestion C. respiratory problems and lung cancer D. decreased amount of oxygen available to the heart 50. Which of the following is most likely the result of poor lifestyle choices? A. brain tumour B. leukemia C. heart attack D. polio 51. A procedure used to clear a blocked artery is A. dialysis B. angioplasty C. angiogram D. bulimia

10 52. The process through which green plants capture light energy from the Sun is A. growth B. photosynthesis C. fertilization D. cellular respiration 53. Energy from the Sun is stored in green plants as A. glucose B. iron C. starch D. carbon dioxide 54. Which model(s) shows how energy is passed through an ecosystem? A. food chain B. food web C. consumer D. both A and B 55. When an owl eats a weasel, it is an example of a tertiary consumer because A. the weasel has died B. the weasel is a producer C. the weasel eats producers D. the weasel eats a mouse, making it a secondary consumer 56. In a pyramid of energy, the amount of energy transferred from one level to the next is A. 10% B. 30% C. 50% D. 90% 57. The natural cycle that includes photosynthesis is the A. water cycle B. ozone cycle C. nitrogen cycle D. carbon and oxygen cycle

11 58. A group of individuals of the same species living in the same place at the same time is called a A. herd B. population C. predator D. consumer 59. Individuals that leave a population to go live elsewhere is known as A. emigration B. immigration C. carrying capacity D. abiotic factoring 60. Which of the following is not an abiotic limiting factor? A. water B. matter C. parasitism D. weather

12 PART B: SHORT ANSWER Answer each of the following questions using the space provided. 1. Circle the term that makes the statement correct. a. The solubility of most substances (increases / decreases) with an increase in temperature. (1 mark) b. Eutrophication is caused by the build up of (nitrogen / sulphur) in an aquatic ecosystem. 2. Use the following terms to complete the statements. (2 marks) (3 marks) 3. Calculate the amount of work done when moving a 200-N bag of salt a distance of 30 m. Provide the proper units in your answer. Use the formula W = F x d. (3 marks)

13 4. Label the animal cell with the correct terms chosen from the following list. (6 marks) 5. Why are soil crumbs important? (2 marks) 6. Explain how the burning of fossil fuels affects the atmosphere of the Earth. Be sure to include what the build up of the gasses in the atmosphere is called and the effect that it has on the Earth. (4 marks)

14 7. Describe three factors that might cause many individuals of a population to emigrate. Think of both plants and animals. (3 marks) 8. Which of the three population curves shown here would you draw for: i. a population of fish introduced into a newly dug pond that has lots of live organisms for food? (1 mark) ii. a population of bacteria in a closed test tube with food? No more food is added to the test tube? (1 mark) iii. the human population in the world? (1 mark) 9. Explain why energy cannot be created or destroyed. What happens to it? (2 marks)