CHAPTER - 1 THE LIVING WORLD

Transcription

1 11 th Bio-Zoology The Living World LEVEL I (1-50 Questions) BIO-ZOOLOGY UNIT I CHAPTER - 1 THE LIVING WORLD TRY AND TEST YOURSELF 1. A living organism is differentiated from non-living structure based on a) Reproduction b) Growth c) Metabolism d) Movement 2. A group of organisms having similar traits of a rank is a) Species b) Taxon c) Genus d) Family 3. Every unit of classification regardless of its rank is a) Taxon b) Variety c) Species d) Strain 4. Which of the following is not present in same rank? a) Primata b) Orthoptera c) Diptera d) Insecta 5. What taxonomic aid gives comprehensive information about a taxon? a) Taxonomic Key b) Herbarium c) Flora d) Monograph 6. Who coined the term biodiversity? a) Walter Rosen b) AG Tansley c) Aristotle d) AP de Candole 7. Cladogram considers the following characters a) Physiological and Biochemical b) Evolutionary and Phylogenetic c) Taxonomic and systematic d) None of these 8. Molecular taxonomic tool consists of a) DNA and RNA b) Mitochondria and Endocplamic reticulum c) Cell wall and Membrane proteins d) All the above 9. Find the one which is wrongly matched. a) Biodiversity Walter Rosen b) Book Historia animalium Aristotle c) Five kingdom classification Carolus Linnaeus d) Species concept John Ray 10. Find the odd one. a) Silver Fish b) Starfish c) Jelly fish d) Cat fish 11. Pick out the animal which is Anaima (without blood) in nature. a) Cobra b) Shark c) Coral d) Toad 12. Which character is shared in common by the following animals? Bat, Baleen whale, Sloth, Gorilla. a) Gill breathing b) Aquatic c) Aerial d) Viviparous 13. Which of the following character is not shared by Lizard, Tortoise, Krait? a) Tetrapod b) Poikilotherm c) Cledoic egg d) Pinna 14. Which of the following animal is not an amniote? a) Crocodile b) Parrot c) Frog d) Elephant Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

2 11 th Bio-Zoology The Living World Arrange the following animals from lower organisation to advanced forms. a) Sepia b) Moth c) Physalia d) All of these 16. Comparison among animals in the form of Tree diagram was introduced by a) Carolus Linnaeus b) Aristotle c) Ernst Haeckel d) John Ray 17. The book Methodus Plantarum Nova was published by a) John Ray b) Aristotle c) Ernst Haekel d) Carolus Linnaeus 18. Who was introduced the term bio diversity? a) A.G.Tansley b) Walter Rosen c) E.D.Wilson d) Aristotle 19. Ecosystem means a) a community of living organisms b) non-living environment c) their interrelationships d) All of these 20. Earth has habitats with a wide range of living organisms inhabiting them. a) few b) numerous c) all d) none of these 21. Plants and animals are present in almost all of the places, from a) Polar ice caps to volcanic hot springs b) Shallow lagoons to the deepest oceans c) Tropical rain forests to dry and parcheddeserts d) All of these 22. The presence of a large number of species in a particular ecosystem is called a) producer b) bio diversity c) consumer d) decomposer 23. The key character of living organisms is a) adaptation b) homeostasis c) Both of these d) None of these 24. Find out correct one a) 1. Mule 2. Hinny 3. Liger 4. Tigon b) 1. Hinny 2. Mule 3. Liger 4. Tigon c) 1. Hinny 2. Liger 3. Mule 4. Tigon d) 1. Tigon 2. Liger 3. Mule 4. Hinny 25. The key character of living organisms is a) metabolism b) growth c) response to stimuli d) All of these 26. Who was defined the term bio-diversity? a) A.G.Tansley b) Walter Rosen c) E.D.Wilson d) Aristotle 27. The key character of living organisms is a) movement b) reproduction c) excretion d) All of these 28. The key character of living organisms is a) cellular organization b) nutrition c) respiration d) All of these Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

3 11 th Bio-Zoology The Living World indicates categories at different levels, for example Kingdom Animalia, includes multicellular animals such as reptiles, mammals, etc. a) Taxa b) Class c) Species d) Phylum 30. Numerous have made tremendous contribution anddocumentation in the observation and study of even minute characters in living organisms. a) scientists b) taxonomists c) both of these d) none of these 31. is a process by which things are grouped in convenient categories, based on easily observable characters. a) Nomenclature b) Classification c) Taxonomy d) Identification 32. Ecosystem is a community of living organisms non-living environment and their interrelationships. It relates with a) A.G.Tansley b) Walter Rosen c) E.D.Wilson d) Aristotle 33. Study all the living organism hence it becomes necessary to device some means and methods to make this possible and this process is called. a) taxonomy b) classification c) identification d) nomenclature 34. is called as father of taxonomy a) Carolus Linnaeus b) Aristotle c) Theophrastus d) John Ray 35. The word taxonomy was coined by. a) Carolus Linnaeus b) Charles Darwin c) Augustin Pyramus de Candole d) Aristotle 36. A scientific stagethat is not basic to taxonomy. a) Documentation b) Classification c) Identification d) Nomenclature 37. Science of classification is called as. a) Nomenclature b) Classification c) Taxonomy d) Identification 38. is the science of arrangement of living organisms. a) Taxonomy b) Nomenclature c) Classification d) Identification 39. All living organisms can be classified into different taxa is called. a) Identification b) Taxonomy c) Nomenclature d) Classification 40. Find odd one out. a) Procedure b) Environmental adaptations c) Interrelationship between species d) Evolutionary history of the species 41. Find odd one out. a) Classification b) Documentation c) Description d) Identification 42. is the father of modern taxonomy. a) Carolus Linnaeus b) Charles Darwin c) Augustin d) morphology 43. The word taxonomy was coined by: a) AP de Candoll b) Emst Haeckal c) Carl Woese d) Smith 44. Find odd one out. a) Naming b) Arranging c) Well defined principles d) Preserving 45. is called the father of taxonomy (classical). a) Charles Darwin b) Aristotle c) Augustin Pyramus de Candole d) Carolus Linnaeus 46. Historia Animalium was written by. a) Charles Darwin b) Aristotle c) Augustin Pyramus de Candole d) Carolus Linnaeus 47. Initially the classification was based on organism s fundamental characteristics. a) habitat b) morphology c) both of these d) none of these Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

4 11 th Bio-Zoology The Living World Naming of organisms is called. a) Taxonomy b) Systematics c) Both of these d) None of these 49. Early classification of organisms were based on animals. a) Beneficial b) Harmful c) Beneficial or harmful d) All of these 50. was the first to classify all animals in his History of Animals. a) Carolus Linnaeus b) Aristotle c) Charles Darwin d) Augustin Pyramus de Candole LEVEL II ( Questions) 51. His most important contribution was the establishment of species as the ultimate unit of taxonomy. a) Ernst Haeckal b) John Ray c) Carolus Linnaeus d) Theophrastus 52. Who was known as Father of Botany? a) Theophrastus b) Ernst Haeckal c) Carolus Linnaeus d) John Ray 53. Find odd one out. a) Ostrich b) Emu c) Penguin d) Pigeon 54. In the following who is referred as Father of Modern Taxonomy? a) Ernst Haeckal b) John Ray c) Carolus Linnaeus d) Theophrastus 55. Who was considered as English Naturalist? a) Carolus Linnaeus b) John Ray c) Theophrastus d) Ernst Haeckal 56. introduced the method of representing evolutionary relationships with the help of a tree diagram known as cladogram. a) John Ray b) Theophrastus c) Carolus Linnaeus d) Ernst Haeckal 57. Who complicated classification which based on many combined characters, as opposed to earlier taxonomists. a) Carolus Linnaeus b) John Ray c) Theophrastus d) Ernst Haeckal 58. aimed at publishing a complete system of nature, which included works on mammals, reptiles, birds, fishes and insects. a) Carolus Linnaeus b) Theophrastus c) John Ray d) Ernst Haeckal 59. Who did publish Methodus Plantarum Nova? a) Theophrastus b) John Ray c) Ernst Haeckal d) Carolus Linnaeus 60. Who did relate with scientific system of taxonomy and binomial nomenclature? a) Theophrastus b) Ernst Haeckal c) Carolus Linnaeus d) John Ray 61. The Kingdoms defined by him were Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae, and Animalia. a) Theophrastus b) Ernst Haeckal c) R.H.Whittaker d) John Ray 62. Evolutionary step produces a branching and all the members of the branchwould possess the derived character which will not be seen in organisms. a) Cladistics b) Cladogram c) Both of these d) None of these 63. Later on biologists initiated studies on the evolutionary and genetic relationships among organisms, which led to the emerge of phylogenetic classification or. a) Cladistics b) Cladogram c) Tree diagram d) All of these 64. Arranging organisms on the basis of their similar or derived characters which differ from the ancestral characters produced in. a) Cladistics b) Cladogram c) Both of these d) None of these 65. It is an evolutionary classification based on how a common ancestry was shared. a) Cladistics b) Tree diagram c) Cladogram d) All of these Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

5 11 th Bio-Zoology The Living World Carl Woese & co workers classified organisms based on the difference in genes. a) 16S rrna b) 70SrRNA c) 5S rrna d) 80SrRNA 67. The advancement in molecular techniques and biochemical assays has led to a new classification is called. a) Five Domain Classification b) Three Domain Classification c) Two Domain Classification d) Seven Domain Classification 68. Who is related with Five Kingdom Classification? a) R.H.Whittaker b) Cavalier-Smith c) Carl Woese d) None of these 69. Three domain classification was proposed by a) R.H.Whittaker b) Cavalier-Smith c) Carl Woese & co - workers d) Carl Woese 70. Who is related with Three Domain Classification? a) Carl Woese b) Cavalier-Smith c) R.H.Whittaker d) All of these 71. According to Aristotle, the animals with red blood cells are called a) Anaima b) chtromista c) Enaima d) Protozoa 72. have true nucleus and membrane bound organelles. a) Bacteria b) Archaea c) Eukarya d) All of these 73. This domain includes single celled organisms a) Archaea b) Bacteria c) Eukarya d) All of these 74. Archaea appears to have more in common with the than the Bacteria. a) Prokarya b) Eukarya c) Both of these d) None of these 75. cells have no definite nucleus and DNA exists as a circular chromosomes and do not have histones associated with it. a) Eukarya b) Bacteria c) Archaea d) All of these 76. differ from bacteria in cell wall composition and differs from bacteria and eukaryotes in membrane composition and rrna types. a) Archaea b) Eukarya c) Prokarya d) All of these 77. They do not possess membrane bound organelles except for ribosome. a) 70S type Bacteria b) 80S type Bacteria c) Both of these d) All of these 78. Few organisms live in salty environments. a) Extremophiles b) Halophiles c) Thermoacidophiles d) All of these 79. They are capable of synthesizing their food without sunlight and oxygen by utilizing hydrogen sulphide and other chemicals from the volcanic vents. a) Bacteria b) Archaea c) Eukarya d) All of these 80. The prokaryotes which have the ability to grow in extreme conditions like volcano vents, hot springs and polar ice caps, hence are also called. a) Extremophiles b) Halophiles c) Thermoacidophiles d) All of these 81. Which thrive in acidic environments and at high temperatures. a) Halophiles b) Extremophiles c) Thermoacidophiles d) All of these 82. Five kingdom classification was proposed by: a) Walter Rosen b) R.H. Whittaker c) AG Tansley d) Bauhin 83. are photosynthetic blue green algae which produce oxygen. a) Probiotic b) Pathogenic c) Cyanobacteria d) All of these 84. Beneficial bacteria is called. a) Probiotic b) Cyanobacteria c) Pathogenic d) All of these 85. Their cell wall contains peptidoglycans. a) 70S type Bacteria b) 80S type Bacteria c) Both of these d) All of these 86. are prokaryotic, their cells have no definite nucleus and DNA exists as a circular chromosomes and do not have histones associated with it. a) Eukarya b) Bacteria c) Archaea d) All of these Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

6 11 th Bio-Zoology The Living World Harmful Bacteria is called. a) Cyanobacteria b) Pathogenic c) Probiotic d) All of these 88. Three domain classification was proposed by: a) Carl Woese b) Huxley c) Yarad Giri d) JohnRay 89. It is a group of animals having similar morphological features (traits) and is reproductively isolated to produce fertile offspring. a) Species b) Family c) Genus d) Order 90. Linear chromosome with histone proteins, ribosomes of type is found in thechloroplast and mitochondria. a) 70S b) 80S c) Both of these d) None of these 91. revised the six kingdom system to Seven Kingdom system. a) Carl Woese b) R.H.Whittaker c) Cavalier-Smith d) All of these 92. is the basic unit of classification in the taxonomic hierarchical system. a) Species b) Order c) Family d) Genus 93. Linear chromosome with histone proteins, ribosomes of type is found in the cytosol. a) 70S b) 80S c) Both of these d) None of these 94. Prokaryotes which have the ability to grow in extreme: a) Probiotic b) Pathogenic c) Extremophiles d) Archaea 95. It is a taxonomic category which includes a group of related genera. a) Order b) Genus c) Family d) Species 96. It is a group of closely related species which have evolved from a common ancestor. a) Family b) Genus c) Species d) Order 97. There are some exceptional animals which can produce sterile offspring because of mating with closely related. a) Species b) Genus c) Order d) Family 98. If there are more than one species in the genus it is known as a) Monotypic genus b) Polytypic genus c) Both of these d) None of these 99. In some genus there is only one species which is called as a) Monotypic genus b) Polytypic genus c) Both of these d) None of these 100. The cell wall of bacteria contains a) Glycogen b) Peptidoglycans c) Histones d) Polypeptides LEVEL III ( Questions) 101. All living animals belonging to various phyla are included in the. a) Order b) Phylum c) Class d) Kingdom 102. One or more similar families are grouped together to form a/an. a) Genus b) Species c) Family d) Order 103. category includes an assemblage of one or more related families which show few common features. a) Species b) Family c) Genus d) Order 104. The group of classes with similar distinctive characteristics constitute a. a) Order b) Kingdom c) Phylum d) Class 105. This category includes one or more related orders with some common characters. a) Order b) Class c) Kingdom d) Phylum 106. Trinomial Nomenclature was proposed by a) Huxley and Stricklandt b) Charles Darwin c) Carolus Linnaeus d) Aristotle Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

7 11 th Bio-Zoology The Living World The process of assigning scientific names to animals or taxonomic group is called. a) Biodiversity b) Nomenclature c) Systematics d) Classification 108. It is the top most of the taxonomic hierarchy. a) Class b) Order c) Phylum d) Kingdom 109. Binomial Nomenclature was popularized by a) Huxley and Stricklandt b) Carolus Linnaeus c) Aristotle d) Charles Darwin 110. functions to provide names for all taxa at all levels in the hierarchy of life. a) Classification b) Nomenclature c) Biodiversity d) Systematics 111. Seven Kingdom system was proposed by: a) Cavalier-Smith b) AGTansley c) Adams d) Walter Rosen 112. is the basic unit of classification. a) Species b) Genus c) Family d) Order 113. The practice of naming the animals in which the generic name and species name are the same, is called. a) Binomial Nomenclature b) Trinomial Nomenclature c) Tautonymy d) All of these 114. If the species name is framed after any person s name the name of the species shall end with a) I b) ii c) ae d) All of these 115. Trinomen means, a) Species name b) Generic name c) Sub-species name d) All of these 116. A new species of a has been discovered and named after Scientist Varad Giri, Cyrtodactylus varadgirii. a) Ground-dwelling lizard b) Cyrtodactylus c) Both of these d) None of these 117. can be defined as a group of organisms that have similar morphology and physiology and can interbreed to produce fertile offsprings. a) Species b) Genus c) Family d) Order 118. Historia Generalis Plantarum book was written by. a) Charles Darwin b) John Ray c) Carolus Linnaeus d) Aristotle 119. The term species was coined by. a) Aristotle b) John Ray c) Carolus Linnaeus d) Charles Darwin 120. Origin of Species book was written by. a) Aristotle b) Carolus Linnaeus c) John Ray d) Charles Darwin 121. Systema naturae book was written by. a) John Ray b) Aristotle c) Carolus Linnaeus d) Charles Darwin 122. may be used as tools for the study of plant taxonomy. a) Herbarium b) Botanical garden c) Both of these d) None of these 123. considered species as the basic unit of classification. a) Historia Generalis Plantarum b) Systema naturae c) Origin of Species d) Tautonymy 124. described species as a group of morphologically similar organisms arising from a common ancestor. a) Tautonymy b) Systema naturae c) Historia Generalis Plantarum d) Origin of Species 125. may be different for the study of plants and animals. a) Tools b) Taxonomical aids c) Both of these d) None of these 126. explains the evolutionary connection of species by the process of natural selection. a) Origin of Species b) Tautonymy c) Historia Generalis Plantarum d) Systema naturae Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

8 11 th Bio-Zoology The Living World Mating between the male lion and female tiger results in: a) Mule b) Tigon c) Liger d) felis 128. It enables us to study their food habits and behaviour. a) Taxonomical keys b) Marine parks c) Zoological parks d) Museums 129. Specimens of both extinct and living organisms can be studied. a) Marine parks b) Museums c) Zoological parks d) Taxonomical keys 130. are based on comparative analysis of the similarities and dissimilarities of organisms. a) Taxonomical keys b) Zoological parks c) Museums d) Marine parks 131. These are places where wild animals are kept in protected environments under human care. a) Museums b) Taxonomical keys c) Zoological parks d) Marine parks 132. have collection of preserved plants and animals for study and ready reference. a) Marine parks b) Museums c) Zoological parks d) Taxonomical keys 133. The scientific name of human is a) Homo erectus b) Homo sapiens c) Emberi d) umano 134. This is used to identify an individual from a sample of DNA by looking at unique patterns in their DNA. a) DNA hybridization b) DNA barcoding c) DNA fingerprinting d) All of these 135. The is more significant in the molecular taxonomical tools. a) Accuracy b) Authenticity c) Both of these d) All of these 136. Marine organisms are maintained in protected enviroments. a) Museums b) Taxonomical keys c) Zoological parks d) Marine parks 137. It measures the degree of genetic similarity between pools of DNA sequences. a) All of the above b) DNA hybridization c) DNA fingerprinting d) DNA barcoding 138. Short genetic marker in an organism s DNA to identify it as belonging to a particular species. a) DNA barcoding b) DNA fingerprinting c) DNA hybridization d) All of these 139. INOTAXA is an electronic resource for digital images includes in a) Ethology of taxonomical tool b) Neo taxonomical tool c) e taxonomic resource d) All of these 140. This is based on Electron Microscopy images to study the molecular structures of cell organelles. a) Neo taxonomical tool b) Ethology of taxonomical tool c) e taxonomic resource d) All of these 141. It is used to analyse difference in homologous DNA sequences that can be detected by the presence of fragments of different lengths after digestion of the DNA samples. a) Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphisms (RFLP) b) Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) c) Both of these d) None of these 142. Based on the behaviour of the organisms it can be classified. a) Neo taxonomical tool b) Ethology of taxonomical tool c) e taxonomic resource d) All of these 143. This is used to amplify a specific gene, or portion of gene. a) Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphisms (RFLP) b) Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) c) Both of these d) None of these 144. The binomial name of Indian National Bird a) Pavo cristatus b) Homo sapiens c) Ailurus fulgens d) Felis margarita Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

9 11 th Bio-Zoology The Living World NEET BASED QUESTIONS : 145. The smallest taxon among the following is. (PMT-94) a) class b) order c) species d) genus 146. Taxonomically a species is. (PMT-94) a) A group of evolutionary related population b) A fundamental unit in the phylogeny of organisms c) Classical evolutionary taxonomy d) A community taken into considerationa. an evolutionary base 147. Species is. a) not related to evolution b) specific class of evolution c) specific unit of evolution d) fertile specific unit in the evolutionary history of a race 148. Two words comprising the binomial nomenclature are. (DPMT-96) a) Family & genus b) order & family c) genus & species d) species & variety 149. A group of plants or animals with similar traits of any rank is kept under. (PMT-96) a) species b) genus c) order d) taxon 150. Which of the following is the correct sequence in the increasing order of complexity? (PMT-96) a) molecules, tissues, community, population b) cell, tissues, community, population c) tissues, organisms, population, community d) molecules, tissues, community, cells LEVEL IV ( Questions) 151. New systematic and the concept of life was given by (BHU-98) a) Huxley b) Odom c) Elton d) Linnaeus 152. Two organisms of same class but different families will be kept under the same (CET-98) a) genera b) species c) order d) family 153. Which of the following will form a new species? (PMT-98) a) inter breeding b) variations c) differential reproduction d) none of the above 154. A community includes. (CET-98) a) a group of same genera b) a group of same population c) a group of individuals from same species d) different populations interacting with each other 155. Binomial nomenclature was given by. (BHU-97) a) Huxley b) Ray c) Darwin d) Linnaeus 156. In classification the category below the level of family is. (CET- 98) a) class b) species c) phylum d) genus 157. One of the following includes most closely linked organisms (PMT- 2001) a) species b) genus c) family d) class 158. Which of the following taxons cover a greater number of organisms? (PMT-2001) a) order b) family c) genus d) phylum 159. Which is not a unit of taxonomic category? (BVP-2002) a) series b) glumaceae c) class d) phylum 160. Which is the first step of taxonomy? (MGIMS-2002) a) nomenclature b) classification c) identification d) hierarchical arrangement 161. Inbreeding is possible between two members of. (AMU-2005) a) order b) family c) genus d) species 162. The five kingdom classification was given by. (BYP-2002) a) Whittaker b) Linnaeus c) Copeland d) Haeckel Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

10 11 th Bio-Zoology The Living World Taxon is. (CET-2000) a) species b) unit of classification c) highest rank in classification d) group of closely related 164. Which of these is correct order of hierarchy? (WARDHA-2002) a) kingdom, division, phylum genus & species b) phylum, division, genus & class c) kingdom, genus, class, phylum & division d) phylum, kingdom, genus, species &class 165. Taxon includes. (PMT-2002) a) Genus and species b) kingdom and division c) all ranks of hierarchy d) none of the above 166. Binomial nomenclature refers to. (CET-2000) a) Two names of a species b) one specific and one local name of a species c) two words for the name of a species d) two life cycles of a organism 167. Carl Linnaeus is famous for. (GGSPU-2002) a) coining the term systematics b) introducing binomial nomenclature c) giving all natural system of classification d) all of these 168. True species are. a) interbreeding b) sharing the same niche c) feeding on the same food d) reproductively isolated 169. The smallest unit of classification is. (GGSPU-2002) a) species b) sub-species c) class d) genus 170. Who coined the term taxonomy? (BVP-2003) a) Candolle b) Waksman c) Leuwenhoek d) Louis Pasteur 171. Basic unit of classification of organisms is. (CET-2003) a) species b) population c) class d) family 172. The unit of classification containing concrete biological entities is. (WARDHA-2003) a) taxon b) species c) category d) order 173. Species are considereda.. a) real basic units of classification b) the lowest units of classification c) artificial concept of human mind which cannot be defined in absolute terms d) real units of classification devised by taxonomists 174. The living organisms can be unexceptionally distinguished from the non-living things on the basis of their ability for.. a) interaction with the environment and progressive evolution b) reproduction c) growth and movement d) responsiveness to touch 175. Taxonomic category arrange in descending order. (MH-01) a) key b) hierarchy c) taxon d) taxonomic category 176. In which of the animal dimorphic nucleus is found? ( PMT 2002) a) Amoeba proteus b) Trypanosoma gambiense c) Plasmodium vivax d) Paramecium caudatum 177. When a fresh-water protozoan possessing a contractile vacuole, is placed in a glass containing marine water, the vacuole will (PMT 2004) a) increase in number b) disappear c) increase in size d) decrease in size 178. Which form of reproduction is correctly matched? (AIIMS 2007) a) Euglena transvers binary fission b) Paramecium longitudinal binary fission c) Amoeba multiple fission d) Plasmodium binary fission Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

11 11 th Bio-Zoology The Living World Which class of protozoa is totally parasitic? (BHU 1994) a) sporozoa b) mastigophora c) ciliate d) sarcodina 180. The presence of two types of nuclei, a macronucleus and a micronucleus, is characteristic of protozoans are grouped under the class. (BHU 1994, 1999) a) sporozoa b) flagellate c) sarcodina d) ciliata 181. Reproduction in paramecium is controlled by (BHU 1999) a) flagella b) cell wall c) micronucleus d) macronucleus 182. In the life cycle of plasmodium exflagellation occurs in (BHU 2007) a) sporozoties b) microgametes c) macrogametes d) signet ring 183. Excretion in Amoeba occurs through (DPMT 1997) a) lobopodia b) plasma membrane c) uroid portion d) contractile vacuole 184. Method of dispersal in Amoeba is (DPMT 1995) a) locomotion b) encystment c) sporulation d) binary fission 185. Mode of feeding in free living protozoans is (DPMT 2007) a) holozoic b) saprozoic c) both (a) and (b) d) none of these 186. Infection of Entamoeba is caused (UP- CPMT 1996, 1999) a) by kissing b) by wearing clothes of patient c) by contaminated food d) none of these 187. Choose the correct statement a) All reptiles have a three chambered heart. b) All Pisces have gills covered by a operculum c) All mammals are viviparous d) All cyclostomes do not posses jaws and paired fin 188. Which of the following characteristics is mainly responsible for diversification of insects on land? a) Segmentation b) Bilateral symmetry c) Exoskeleton d) Eyes 189. The primitive prokaryotes responsible for the production of biogas from the ruminant animals include the a) Thermoacidophiles b) methanogens c) Eubacteria d) Halophiles 190. Methanogens belong to a) Dino flagellates b) Slime moulds c) Eubacteria d) Archaebacteria 191. Identify the animal given in the diagram. Picture Based Questions Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

12 11 th Bio-Zoology Kingdom Animalia UNIT I CHAPTER - 2 KINGDOM ANIMALIA TRY AND TEST YOURSELF LEVEL I (1-50 Questions) 1. The symmetry exhibited in cnidarians is a) Radial b) Bilateral c) Pentamerous radial d) Asymmetrical 2. Sea anemone belongs to phylum a) Protozoa b) Porifera c) Coelenterata d) Echinodermata 3. The excretory cells that are found in platyhelminthes are a) Protonephridia b) Flame cells c) Solenocytes d) All of these 4. In which of the following organisms, self fertilization is seen. a) Fish b) Round worm c) Earthworm d) Liver fluke 5. Nephridia of Earthworms are performing the same functions as a) Gills of prawn b) Flame cells of Planaria c) Trachea of insects d) Nematoblasts of Hydra 6. Which of the following animals has a true coelom? a) Ascaris b) Pheretima c) Sycon d) Taenia solium 7. Metameric segmentation is the main feature of a) Annelida b) Echinodermata c) Arthropoda d) Coelenterata 8. In Pheretima locomotion occurs with help of a) circular muscles b) longitudinal muscles and setae c) circular, longitudinal muscles and setae d) parapodia 9. Which of the following have the highest number of species in nature? a) Insects b) Birds c) Angiosperms d) Fungi 10. Which of the following is a crustacean? a) Prawn b) Snail c) Sea anemone d) Hydra 11. The respiratory pigment in cockroach is a) Haemoglobin b) Haemocyanin c) Oxyhaemoglobin d) Haemoerythrin 12. Exoskeleton of which phylum consists of chitinous cuticle? a) Annelida b) porifera c) Arthropoda d) Echinodermata 13. Lateral line sense organs occur in a) Salamander b) Frog c) Water snake d) Fish 14. The limbless amphibian is a) Icthyophis b) Hyla c) Rana d) Salamander 15. Four chambered heart is present in a) Lizard b. Snake c) Scorpion d) Crocodile 16. Which of the following is an egg laying mammal? a) Delphinus b) Macropus c) Ornithorhynchus d) Equus 17. Pneumatic bones are seen in a) Mammalia b) Aves c) Reptilia d) Sponges Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

13 11 th Bio-Zoology Kingdom Animalia Which of the following is not correctly paired? a) Humans Ureotelic b) Birds Uricotelic c) Lizards Uricotelic d) Whale Ammonotelic 19. Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column I Column II p) Pila i) Devil fish q) Dentalium ii) Chiton r) Chaetopleura iii) Apple snail s) Octopus iv) Tusk shell a) p (ii), q (i), r (iii), s (iv) b) p (iii), q (iv), r (ii), s (i) c) p (ii), q (iv), r (i), s (iii) d) p (i), q (ii), r (iii), s (iv) 20. In which of the following phyla, the adult shows radial symmetry but the larva shows bilateral symmetry? a) Mollusca b) Echinodermata c) Arthropoda d) Annelida 21. Which of the following is correctly matched? a) Physalia - Portugese man of war b) Pennatula - Sea fan c) Adamsia - Sea pen d) Gorgonia - Sea anemone 22. Flattend epithelial cells with irregular boundaries are a) Cuboidal b) Squamous c) Ciliated d) Glandular 23. Transitional epithelium is found in a) Uterus b) Urethra c) Urinary bladder d) All of these junction facilitates the cells to communicate with each other by connecting cytoplasm and transport of ions? a) Gap b) Tight c) Adhering d) All of these 25. During embryonic development connective tissue develops from a) Ectoderm b) Mesoderm c) Endoderm d) None of these 26. Muscles are connected to bones by a) Tendon b) Collagen c) Ligaments d) Fibroblast 27. Which tissue contain abundant mitochondria? a) Epithelial tissue b) Neural tissue c) White fat d) Brown fat 28. Parkinson s disease is related to a) Nervous system b) Bone c) Muscles d) Kidney 29. Which one of the following is a liquid connective tissue. a) Aeriolar b) Adipose c) Reticular d) Blood 30. Which muscle fiber tapers at both ends? a) Skeletal muscle b) Cardiac muscle c) Smooth muscle d) All of these 31. are structurally and functionally different but yet they possess certain common fundamental features. a) Multicellular organisms b) Division of labour c) Cellular organisation d) Cellular level of organisation 32. All members of Kingdom Animalia are metazoans (multicellular animals) and exhibit different patterns of. a) Multicellular organisms b) Cellular organisation c) Division of labour d) Cellular level of organisation 33. The cells of the metazoans are not capable of independent existence and exhibit. a) Multicellular organisms b) Cellular organisation c) Division of labour d) Cellular level of organisation Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

14 11 th Bio-Zoology Kingdom Animalia This basic level of organisation is seen in sponges. a) Multicellular organisms b) Cellular organisation c) Division of labour d) Cellular level of organisation 35. The cells in the sponges are arranged as loose aggregates and do not form tissues. a) Multicellular organisms b) Cellular organisation c) Division of labour d) Cellular level of organisation 36. In sponges, the outer layer is formed of. a) Pinacocytes b) Choanocytes c) Respiratory and digestive d) Tissue level of organisation 37. Plate- like cells that maintain the size and structure of the sponge is. a) Pinacocytes b) Choanocytes c) Respiratory and digestive d) Tissue level of organisation 38. In sponges, the inner layer is formed of. a) Pinacocytes b) Choanocytes c) Respiratory and digestive d) Tissue level of organisation 39. Find out correct one a) 1. Ectoderm 2. Mesoderm 3. Endoderm 4. Digestive cavity b) 1. Mesoderm 2. Endoderm 3. Ectoderm 4. Digestive cavity c) 1. Endoderm 2. Mesoderm 3. Ectoderm 4. Digestive cavity d) 1. Digestive cavity 2. Endoderm 3. Mesoderm 4. Ectoderm 40. animals, cells that perform similar functions are aggregated to form tissues. a) Pinacocytes b) Choanocytes c) Respiratory and digestive d) Tissue level of organisation 41. The cells of a tissue integrate in a highly coordinated fashion to perform a common function, due to the presence of nerve cells and sensory cells. a) Pinacocytes b) Choanocytes c) Respiratory and digestive d) Tissue level of organisation 42. is exhibited in diploblastic animals like cnidarians. a) Pinacocytes b) Choanocytes c) Respiratory and digestive d) Tissue level of organisation 43. The formation of tissues is the first step towards evolution of body plan in animals. a) Pinacocytes b) Choanocytes c) Respiratory and digetive d) Tissue level of organisation 44. that create and maintain water flow through the sponge. a) Collar cells b) Organ level of organisation c) Organ system level of organisation d) Incomplete digestive system Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

15 11 th Bio-Zoology Kingdom Animalia Different kinds of tissues aggregate to form an organ to perform a specific function. a) Collar cells b) Organ level of organisation c) Organ system level of organisation d) Incomplete digestive system 46. Find out correct one a) 1. Physalia 2. Pennatula 3. Meandrina 4. Adamsia b) 1. Pennatula 2. Adamsia 3. Meandrina 4. Physalia c) 1. Physalia 2. Meandrina 3. Adamsia 4. Pennatula d) 1. Adamsia 2. Pennatula 3. Meandrina 4. Physalia 47. The most efficient and highest level of organisation among the animals is exhibited by flatworms, nematodes, annelids, arthropods, molluscs, echinoderms and chordates. a) Collar cells b) Organ level of organisation c) Organ system level of organisation d) Incomplete digestive system 48. The evolution of mesoderm in these animals has led to their structural complexity. a) Collar cells b) Organ level of organisation c) Organ system level of organisation d) Incomplete digestive system 49. Highly specialized nerve and sensory cells coordinate and integrate the functions of the organ systems. a) Collar cells b) Organ level of organisation c) Organ system level of organisation d) Incomplete digestive system 50. The digestive system of Platyhelminthes has only a single opening to the exterior which serves as both mouth and anus, and hence called an. a) Collar cells b) Organ level of organisation c) Organ system level of organisation d) Incomplete digestive system LEVEL II ( Questions) 51. in which the blood remains filled in tissue spaces due to the absence of blood capillaries. a) Open type circulation b) Closed type of circulation c) Diploblastic animals d) Triploblastic animals 52. Arthropods, molluscs, echinoderms, and urochordates are examples for. a) Open type of circulation b) Closed type of circulation c) Diploblastic animals d) Triploblastic animals Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

16 11 th Bio-Zoology Kingdom Animalia in which the blood is circulated through blood vessels of varying diameters. a) Open type circulation b) Closed type of circulation c) Diploblastic animals d) Triploblastic animals 54. Annelids, cephalochordates and vertebrates are examples for. a) Open type circulation b) Closed type of circulation c) Diploblastic animals d) Triploblastic animals 55. Animals in which the cells are arranged in two embryonic layers. a) Open type circulation b) Closed type of circulation c) Diploblastic animals d) Triploblastic animals 56. Animals in which the developing embryo has three germinal layers are called a) Open type circulation b) Closed type of circulation c) Diploblastic animals d) Triploblastic animals 57. is the body arrangement in which parts that lie on opposite side of an axis are identical. a) Symmetry b) Asymmetrical c) Radial symmetry d) Pentamerousradial symmetry 58. animals lack a definite body plan. a) Symmetry b) Asymmetrical c) Radial symmetry d) Pentamerous radial symmetry 59. When any plane passing through the central axis of the body divides an organism into two identical parts, it is called. a) Symmetry b) Asymmetrical c) Radial symmetry d) Pentamerous radial symmetry 60. It is the principal symmetry in diploblastic animals. a) Symmetry b) Asymmetrical c) Radial symmetry d) Pentamerous radial symmetry 61. Cnidarians such as sea anemone and corals are. a) Symmetry b) Asymmetrical c) Radial symmetry d) Pentamerous radial symmetry 62. Triploblastic animals like echinoderms (e.g., starfish) have five planes of symmetry and show a) Symmetry b) Asymmetrical c) Radial symmetry d) Pentamerous radial symmetry 63. Animals which possess two pairs of symmetrical sides are said to be. a) Biradially symmetrical b) Bilateral symmetry c) Coelom d) Acoelomates 64. is a combination of radial and bilateral symmetry as seen in ctenophores. a) Biradially symmetrical b) Bilateral symmetry c) Coelom d) Acoelomates 65. It is an advantageous type of symmetry in triploblastic animals, which helps in seeking food, locating mates and escaping from predators more efficiently. a) Biradially symmetrical b) Bilateral symmetry c) Coelom d) Acoelomates 66. Animals that have dorsal and ventral sides, anterior and posterior ends, right and left sides are and exhibit cephalization. a) Biradially symmetrical b) Bilateral symmetry c) Coelom d) Acoelomates 67. The presence of is important in classifying animals. a) Biradially symmetrical b) Bilateral symmetry c) Coelom d) Acoelomates 68. Animals which do not possess a body cavity are called. a) Biradially symmetrica b) Bilateral symmetry c) Coelom d) Acoelomates Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

17 11 th Bio-Zoology Kingdom Animalia The pseudocoelomic fluid in the pseudocoelom acts as a. a) Hydrostatic skeleton b) Eucoelom c) Schizocoelomates d) Enterocoelomate 70. is a fluid-filled cavity that develops within the mesoderm. a) Hydrostatic skeleton b) Eucoelom c) Schizocoelomates d) Enterocoelomate 71. in these animals the body cavity is formed by splitting of mesoderm. a) Hydrostatic skeleton b) Eucoelom c) Schizocoelomates d) Enterocoelomate 72. Annelids, arthropods, molluscs are examples for. a) Hydrostatic skeleton b) Eucoelom c) Schizocoelomates d) Enterocoelomate 73. In the body cavity is formed from the mesodermal pouches of archenteron. a) Hydrostatic skeleton b) Eucoelom c) Schizocoelomates d) Enterocoelomate 74. Echinoderms, hemichordates and chordates are examples for. a) Hydrostatic skeleton b) Eucoelom c) Schizocoelomates d) Enterocoelomate 75. The body is externally and internally divided into a series of repeated units. a) Metamerism b) Chordates c) Notochord d) Eumetazoans 76. Animals which possess notochord at any stage of their development are called. a) Metamerism b) Chordates c) Notochord d) Eumetazoans 77. is a mesodermally derived rod like structure. a) Metamerism b) Chordates c) Notochord d) Eumetazoans 78. The other than Radiata, show organ level of organization. a) Metamerism b) Chordates c) Notochord d) Eumetazoans 79. includes the eumetazoans in which the embryonic blastopore develops into mouth. a) Protostomia b) Deuterostomia c) Sponges d) Water transport system 80. includes three subdivisionsacoelomata, pseudocoelomata and schizocoelomata. a) Protostomia b) Deuterostomia c) Sponges d) Water transport system 81. Eumetazoans in which anus is formed from or near the blastopore and the mouth. a) Protostomia b) Deuterostomia c) Sponges d) Water transport system 82. It includes only one subdivision Enterocoelomata. a) Protostomia b) Deuterostomia c) Sponges d) Water transport system 83. These pore bearing animals are commonly called. a) Protostomia b) Deuterostomia c) Sponges d) Water transport system 84. They possess a water transport system. a) Protostomia b) Deuterostomia c) Sponges d) Water transport system 85. The is helpful in food gathering, circulation, respiration and removal of waste. a) Protostomia b) Deuterostomia c) Sponges d) Water transport system 86. are special flagellated cells lining the spongocoel and the canals. a) Choanocytes b) Fresh water sponge c) Bath sponge d) Venus flower basket 87. Spongilla is. a) Choanocytes b) Fresh water sponge c) Bath sponge d) Venus flower basket 88. Euspongia is. a) Choanocytes b) Fresh water sponge c) Bath sponge d) Venus flower basket 89. Euplectellais. a) Choanocytes b) Fresh water sponge c) Bath sponge d) Venus flower basket 90. are aquatic, sessile or free swimming, solitary or colonial forms. a) Cnidaria b) Cnidoblasts c) Hypostome d) Calcium carbonate 91. are used for anchorage, defense, and to capture the prey. a) Cnidaria b) Cnidoblasts c) Hypostome d) Calcium carbonate Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

18 11 th Bio-Zoology Kingdom Animalia serves the process of ingestion and egestion. a) Cnidaria b) Cnidoblasts c) Hypostome d) Calcium carbonate 93. Cnidarians like corals have a skeleton made up of. a) Cnidaria b) Cnidoblasts c) Hypostome d) Calcium carbonate 94. The forms are sessile and cylindrical. a) Polyp b) Medusa c) Metagenesis d) Planula larva 95. Hydra, Adamsia are examples for. a) Polyp b) Medusa c) Metagenesis d) Planula larva 96. The are umbrella shaped and free swimming. a) Polyp b) Medusa c) Metagenesis d) Planula larva 97. Cnidarians exhibit alternation of generations in their life cycle is. a) Polyp b) Medusa c) Metagenesis d) Planula larva 98. Development is indirect and includes a free swimming ciliated in cnidarians. a) Polyp b) Medusa c) Metagenesis d) Planula larva 99. Microvilli and Goblet cells are the modifications of epithelium a) Columnar b) Cuboidal c) Glandular d) Ciliated 100. Adamsia is. a) Portugese man of war b) Sea anemone c) Sea pen d) Brain coral LEVEL III ( Questions) 101. Pennatula is. a) Portugese man of war b) Sea anemone c) Sea pen d) Brain coral 102. Meandrina is. a) Portugese man of war b) Sea anemone c) Sea pen d) Brain coral 103. are exclusively marine, radially symmetrical, diploblastic animals. a) Ctenophora b) Bioluminescence c) Cydippid larva d) Platyhelminthes 104. have eight external rows of ciliated comb plates. a) Ctenophora b) Bioluminescence c) Cydippid larva d) Platyhelminthes 105. is well marked in ctenophores. a) Ctenophora b) Bioluminescence c) Cydippid larva d) Platyhelminthes 106. is the ability of a living organism to emit light. a) Ctenophora b) Bioluminescence c) Cydippid larva d) Platyhelminthes 107. Fertilization is external and development is indirect and includes a larval stage. a) Ctenophora b) Bioluminescence c) Cydippid larva d) Platyhelminthes 108. Pleurobrachia and Ctenoplana are examples for. a) Ctenophora b) Bioluminescence c) Cydippid larva d) Platyhelminthes 109. They show moderate cephalization and unidirectional movement. a) Ctenophora b) Bioluminescence c) Cydippid larva d) Platyhelminthes 110. is common in some flatworms (Liver flukes). a) Polyembryony b) Planaria c) Aschelminthes d) Ascaris 111. Some members of Platyhelminthes like show high regeneration capacity. a) Polyembryony b) Planaria c) Aschelminthes d) Ascaris 112. Previously called Nematoda, this phylum is now named as. a) Polyembryony b) Planaria c) Aschelminthes d) Ascaris 113. is example for oviparous. a) Polyembryony b) Planaria c) Aschelminthes d) Ascaris Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

19 11 th Bio-Zoology Kingdom Animalia Ovoviviparous is. a) Wuchereria b) Ascarislumbricoides c) Enterobiusvermicularis d) Wuchereriabancrofti 115. Round worm is. a) Wuchereria b) Ascarislumbricoides c) Enterobiusvermicularis d) Wuchereriabancrofti 116. Pin worm is. a) Wuchereria b) Ascarislumbricoides c) Enterobiusvermicularis d) Wuchereriabancrofti 117. Filarial worm is. a) Wuchereria b) Ascarislumbricoides c) Enterobiusvermicularis d) Wuchereriabancrofti 118. were the first segmented animals to evolve. a) Annelids b) Chlorocruorin c) Arthropoda d) Ecdysis 119. The respiratory pigments are haemoglobin and in Annelida. a) Annelids b) Chlorocruorin c) Arthropoda d) Ecdysis 120. This is the largest phylum of the Kingdom Animalia. a) Annelids b) Chlorocruorin c) Arthropoda d) Ecdysis 121. It is shed off periodically by a process called a) Annelids b) Chlorocruorin c) Arthropoda d) Ecdysis 122. King crab, a living fossil is. a) Limulus b) Palamnaeus c) Eupagarus d) Apis 123. Scorpion is. a) Limulus b) Palamnaeus c) Eupagarus d) Apis 124. Hermit crab is. a) Limulus b) Palamnaeus c) Eupagarus d) Apis 125. Honey bee is. a) Limulus b) Palamnaeus c) Eupagarus d) Apis 126. This is the second largest animal phylum. a) Mollusca b) Veliger c) Water vascular system d) Echinoderms 127. A modified trochophore larva in Molluscan is. a) Mollusca b) Veliger c) Water vascular system d) Echinoderms 128. The most distinctive feature of echinoderms is the presence of the. a) Mollusca b) Veliger c) Water vascular system d) Echinoderms 129. Some exhibit autotomy with remarkable powers of regeneration. a) Mollusca b) Veliger c) Water vascular system d) Echinoderms 130. This phylum consists of a small group of worm-like, soft marine animals. a) Hemichordata b) Chordata c) Notochord d) Dorsal tubular nerve cord 131. commonly called the acorn worms or tongue worms. a) Hemichordata b) Chordata c) Notochord d) Dorsal tubular nerve cord 132. is the largest phylum with most familiar group of animals, such as fishes, amphibians, reptiles, birds and mammals. a) Hemichordata b) Chordata c) Notochord d) Dorsal tubular nerve cord 133. In adult vertebrates, it may be partially or completely replaced by backbone. a) Hemichordata b) Chordata c) Notochord d) Dorsal tubular nerve cord 134. A lies above the notochord and below the dorsal body wall. a) Hemichordata b) Chordata c) Notochord d) Dorsal tubular nerve cord 135. They are exclusively marine and are commonly called sea squirts. a) Urochordata b) Cephalochordates c) Agnatha d) Pisces 136. Retrogressive metamorphosis is seen in. a) Urochordata b) Cephalochordates c) Agnatha d) Pisces Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

20 11 th Bio-Zoology Kingdom Animalia are marine forms, found in shallow waters, leading a burrowing mode of life. a) Urochordata b) Cephalochordates c) Agnatha d) Pisces 138. includes jawless fish-like aquatic vertebrates without paired appendages. a) Urochordata b) Cephalochordates c) Agnatha d) Pisces 139. includes cartilaginous fishes and bony fishes. a) Urochordata b) Cephalochordates c) Agnatha d) Pisces 140. All members of are primitive, poikilothermic, jawless aquatic vertebrates. a) Cyclostomata b) Chondrichtyes c) Osteichthyes d) Exocoetus 141. They are marine fishes with cartilaginous endoskeleton. a) Cyclostomata b) Chondrichtyes c) Osteichthyes d) Exocoetus 142. Their jaws are very powerful and are predaceous animals. a) Cyclostomata b) Chondrichtyes c) Osteichthyes d) Exocoetus 143. It includes both marine and freshwater fishes with bony endoskeleton and spindle shaped body. a) Cyclostomata b) Chondrichtyes c) Osteichthyes d) Exocoetus 144. It helps in gaseous exchange (lung fishes) and for maintaining buoyancy in most of the ray finned fishes. a) Cyclostomata b) Chondrichtyes c) Osteichthyes d) Exocoetus 145. Flying fish is. a) Cyclostomata b) Chondrichtyes c) Osteichthyes d) Exocoetus 146. Sea horse is. a) Hippocampus b) Labeo c) Echeneis d) Pterophyllum 147. Rohu is. a) Hippocampus b) Labeo c) Echeneis d) Pterophyllum 148. Sucker fish is. a) Hippocampus b) Labeo c) Echeneis d) Pterophyllum 149. Angel fish is. a) Hippocampus b) Labeo c) Echeneis d) Pterophyllum 150. are the first vertebrates and tetrapods to live both in aquatic as well as terrestrial habitats. a) Amphibians b) lcthyophis c) Reptiles d) Aves LEVEL IV ( Questions) 151. Limbless amphibians is. a) Amphibians b) lcthyophis c) Reptiles d) Aves 152. have three chambered heart but four chambered in crocodiles. a) Amphibians b) lcthyophis c) Reptiles d) Aves 153. Most lay cleidoic eggs with extraembryonic membranes like amnion, allantois, chorion and yolk sac. a) Amphibians b) lcthyophis c) Reptiles d) Aves 154. is the presence of feathers and the ability to fly except for flightless birds. a) Amphibians b) lcthyophis c) Reptiles d) Aves 155. Their body is covered by hair, a unique feature of. a) Mammals b) Ornithorhynchus c) Macropus d) Pteropus 156. Presence of mammary glands is the most unique feature of. a) Mammals b) Ornithorhynchus c) Macropus d) Pteropus 157. Platypus is. a) Mammals b) Ornithorhynchus c) Macropus d) Pteropus 158. Kangaroo is. a) Mammals b) Ornithorhynchus c) Macropus d) Pteropus Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

21 11 th Bio-Zoology Kingdom Animalia Flying fox is. a) Mammals b) Ornithorhynchus c) Macropus d) Pteropus 160. Exoskeleton includes horny epidermal horns, spines, scales, claws, nails, hooves and bony dermal plates. a) Mammals b) Ornithorhynchus c) Macropus d) Pteropus 161. Teeth are thecodont, heterodont and diphyodont. a) Macropus b) Ornithorhynchus c) Mammals d) Pteropus 162. The heart is four chambered and possess a left systematic arch. a) Ornithorhynchus b) Mammals c) Macropus d) Pteropus 163. Mature RBCs are circular, biconcave and non nucleated. a) Mammals b) Ornithorhynchus c) Macropus d) Pteropus 164. have a large brain when compared to other animals. a) Pteropus b) Ornithorhynchus c) Macropus d) Mammals 165. They show greatest intelligence among all animals. a) Macropus b) Ornithorhynchus c) Mammals d) Pteropus 166. Platypus is. a) Ornithorhynchus b) Macropus c) Pteropus d) Delphinus 167. Common dolphin is. a) Ornithorhynchus b) Macropus c) Pteropus d) Delphinus 168. Blue whale is. a) Ornithorhynchus b) Macropus c) Pteropus d) Balaenoptera NEET BASED QUESTIONS: 169. Classification of sponges is primarily based on the (JCECE-2003) a) body organization b) body plan c) skeleton d) canal system 170. Symmetry is cnidaria is (AMU-2009) a) radial b) bilateral c) pentamerous d) spherical 171. Cavity of coelenterates is called (BHU-2008) a) coelenteron b) coelom c) cavity d) none of these 172. Sea anemone bolongs to phylum (BCECE-2005) a) protozoa b) porifera c) coelenterata d) echinodermata 173. Medusa is the Reproductive organs of (BHU-2008) a) Hydra b) Aurelia c) obelia d) sea anemone 174. The excretory cells, that are found in platyhelminthes. (J & K CET- 2007) a) Protonephridia b) flame cells c) Solenocytes d) All of these 175. In which of the following organisms, self fertilization is seen. (CCET- 2007) a) fish b) Round worm c) Earthworm d) Liver fluke 176. Nephridia of Earthworms are performing same function as. (J & K CET-2003) a) gills of prawn b) flame cells of planaria c) trachea of insects d) nematoblasts of Hydra 177. Phylum of Taenia solium is (BCECE-2004) a) Aschelminthes b) Annelids c) platylyelminthes d) mollusca 178. Ascaris is found in (RPMT-2004) a) body cavity b) lymph nodes c) tissue d) alimentary canal 179. Which of the following animals has a true coelom? (J&K CET-2007) a) Ascaris b) pheretima c) sycon d) Taenia solium 180. Metameric segmentation is the main feature of a) Annelida b) Echinodermata c) Arthropoda d) Coelenterata 181. Body cavity lined by mesoderm is called (J & T CET-2005) a) coelenteron b) pseudocoel c) coelom d) blastocoel Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

22 11 th Bio-Zoology Kingdom Animalia Which of the following have the highest number of species in nature? (AIPMT-2011) a) Insects b) Birds c) Angiosperms d) Fungi 183. Which of the following is a crustacean? (Guj-CET-2011) a) prawn b) snail c) sea anemone d) Hydra 184. The respiratory pigment present in cockroach is (OJEE-2010) a) Haemoglobin b) Haemocyanin c) oxyhaemoglobin d) None of these 185. Book lungs are respiratory organs in (AMU-2008) a) Insects b) Aarachnids c) Molluscans d) Echinoderms 186. The exerctory organ in cockroach is (Kerala-CEE-2007) a) malplghian corpuscle b) Malpighian tubules c) green gland d) Metanephridia 187. Exoskeleton of which phylum consists of chitinous cuticle? (J & K CET-2007) a) Annelida b) porifera c) Arthropoda d) Echinodermata 188. In cockroach, vision is due to (PMET- 2005) a) one compound eye b) two compound eyes c) two simple eyes d) two compund and two simple eyes Which of the following respires through gills? (J&K CET-2005) a) whale b) Turtle c) frog d) Prawns 190. Animals which active at night are called (J&K CET-2004) a) diurnal b) nocturnal c) parasites d) nocto-diurnal 191. Salient features of Arthropoda is (RPMT-2003) a) aquatic and free living b) chitinous exoskeleton and jointed appendages c) radulla d) none of those 192. The second largest number of species containing phylum in the animal kingdom is (J&K CET-2008) a) Annelida b) Arthropoda c) Mollusca d) Chordata 193. Mollusca is (JCECE-2006) a) Triploblastic, acoelomate b) Triploblastic, coelomate c) Diploblastic, acoelomate d) Diploblastic, coelomate 194. Tube feet are the locomotory organs of a) platyhelminthes b) Echinodermata c) Mollusca d) Arthropoda 195. Given below are four matchings of an animal and its kind of respiratory organ (PMT 2003) (A) Silver fish - Trachea (B) Scorpion - Book lung (C) Sea squirt - Pharyngeal gills (D) Dolphin - Skin The correct matchings are a) A and B b) A,B and C c) B and D d) C and D 196. Which of the following is a matching pair of an animal and a certain phenomenon it exhibits? (PMT 2003) a) Pheretima - Sexual dimorphism b) Rana - Complete metamorphosis c) Chameleon - Mimicry d) Taenia - Polymorphism 197. Two common characters found in centipede, cockroach, and crab and (PMT 2006) a) book lungs and antennae b) compound eyes and anal cerci c) joint legs and chitinous exoskeleton d) green gland and tracheae 198. Which one of the following groups of animals is bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic? (PMT 2009) a) aschelminthes (round worms) b) ctenophores c) sponges d) coelenterates (cnidarians) 199. Which one feature is common to leech, cockroach and scorpion? (AIIMS 2004) a) nephridia b) ventral nerve cord c) cephalization d) antennae 200. Which one of the following features is common in silverfish, scorpion, dragonfly and prawn? a) Three pairs of legs and segmented body b) Chitinous cuticle and two pairs of antennae c) Jointed appendages and chitinous exoskeleton d) Cephalothorax and trachea Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

23 11 th Bio-Zoology Kingdom Animalia LEVEL V ( Questions) 201. Peripatus is known as a connecting link, because it has the characters of both (BHU 1993) a) Fishes & amphibians b) Reptiles & birds c) Aves & fishes d) Arthropoda& annelids 202. Osphradium of Pila globosa is (BHU 1994, 2000, 2007) a) thermoreceptor b) Pheretima c) chemoreceptor d) tangoreceptor 203. Green glands present in some arthropods help in (BHU 1998, 2007) a) respiration b) excretion c) digestion d) none of these 204. Squid, cuttle fish and Octopus belongs to class of (BHU 1998, 2001) a) decapoda b) scaphopoda c) cephalopoda d) apods 205. The canal system is a characteristic feature of (BHU 1999, 2002) a) sponges b) echinoderms c) helminthes d) coelenterates 206. Malpighian tubules are (BHU 2006) a) excretory organs of insects b) excretory organs of frog c) respiratory organs of insects d) endocrine glands of insects 207. Caterpiller and maggot are (BHU 2007) a) larvae b) nymphs c) adults d) pupa 208. Excretory organ of platyhelminths is (BHU 2008) a) gills b) flame cells c) nephridia d) trachea 209. Water vascular system is a characteristic of (BHU 2008) a) ctenophore b) annelid c) echinodermata d) arthropoda 210. Tube feet are the characteristic structures of (DPMT 1993, 2008) a) jellyfish b) starfish c) cuttlefish d) crayfish 211. Horomone, which helps in metamorphosis in insects is (DPMT 1996) a)pheromone b) ecdysone c) thyroxine d) all of these 212. The muscles associated with the heart of insects are (DPMT 1996, 2006) a) alary b) striped c) radial d) pericardial 213. Which of the following organisms is pseudocoelomate? (DPMT 2001, 2006) a) hookworm b) liver fluke c) jelly fish d) leech 214. Which of the following is not reported to have any fresh water forms? (DPMT 2003) a) Mollusca b) Sponges c) Coelenterates d) echinoderms 215. Pseudocoelom is not found in (DPMT 2004) a) Ascaris b) Ancylostoma c) Fasciola d) none of these 216. Animals devoid of respiratory, excretory and circulatory organs are belongs to phylum (DPMT 2004) a) echinodermata b) platyhelminthes c) porifera d) mollusca 217. Cilia of gills of bivalve molluscs help in (DPMT 2005) a) protection b) respiration c) excretion d) feeding 218. All flat worms differ from all round worms in having (DPMT 2009) a) triploblastc body b) solid mesoderm c) bilateral symmetry d) metamorphosis in the life istory 219. Parthenogenesis can be seen in (UP-CPMT 1995) a) frog b) honey bee c) moth d) all of these 220. The endocrine gland of insects, wich secretes they juvenile hormone, is (UP-CPMT 1995) a) corpora allata b) corpora albicans c) corpora myecaena d) all of these 221. In mollusca, eye is present over a stalk called (UP-CPMT 2000, 2007) a) osphradium b) ostracum c) ommatophore d) operculum 222. Which of the following symmetries is found in adult sea anemone? (UP - CPMT 2004) a) radial b) biradial c) bilateral d) spherical Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

24 11 th Bio-Zoology Kingdom Animalia Malpighian tubules are (UP-CPMT 1996, 2008) a) excretory organs of insects b) respiratory organs of insects c) excretory organs of frog d) endocrine glands of insects 224. Feeding in sponges takes place through (UP-CPMT 2005) a) choanocytes b) nurse cells c) ostia d) osculum 225. Osphradium is meant for (UP-CPMT 2005) a) excretion b) nutrition c) selection and rejection of food d) grindingof food 226. Excretory product of spider is (UP-CPMT 2007) a) uric acid b) ammonia c) guanine d) none of these 227. Which of the following is not the charcter of Taenia solium (UP-CPMT 2007) a) polysis b) proglottid c) metamerism d) strobila 228. Daphnia is commonly known as (UP-CPMT 2007) a) clam shrimp b) fairy shrimp c) water fleas d) tadpole shrimp 229. Wuchereria is found in (UP-CPMT 2007) a) lymph nodes b) lungs c) eye d) gonds 230. Turbellarians are free living (UP-CPMT 2008) a) flatworms b) trematodes c) nematodes d) cesrtodes 231. Polyp phase is absent in (UP-CPMT 2008) a) Physalia b) Obselia c) Hydra d) Aurelia 232. Animals having pseudocoelomate and triploblastic nature are present in phyla (UP-CPMT 2008) a) annelida b) arthropoda c) aschelminthes d) platyhelminthes 233. Primitive nervous system is formed in (UP-CPMT 2009) a) sponge b) cnidaria (coelenterate) c) echinodermata d) annelida 234. Tissues are absent in the body of (UP-CPMT 2009) a) sponge b) annelida c) platyhelminthes d) arthropoda 235. Linmulus belongs to class a) onychophora b) insect c) merostomata d) crustacea 236. Ambulacral system is mainly useful for a) locomotion b) feeding c) circulation d) defence 237. Which of the following is an excretory organ in mollusca? a) Keber's organ b) nephridia c) Malphingan organ d) Flame cells 238. Mouth parts of housefly are a) Piercing and sucking type b) Biting and sucking type c) Sponging and sucking type d) biting and chewing type 239. Anus is absent in a) Periplaneta b) Unio c) Fasciola d) Pheretima 240. Asymmetry in gastropoda is due to a) twistig b) torsion c) coiling d) none of these 241. The pigment haemocyanin is found in a) mollusca b) chordate c) echinodermata d) annelida 242. The development of adult characteristics in a moulting insect is promoted by a) pheromone b) thyroxine c) juvenile hormone d) ecdysone 243. If you are given an insect, a spider, a Peripatus, and a crab, basing on which character you can identify an arachnid from others? a) one pari of legs b) sense organs c) four pairs of legs d) number of wings 244. Choanocytes perfom a) reproduction b) nutrition c) dsecretion of spicules d) excretion 245. The secondary host of Taenia is a) snail b) pig c) man d) dog Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

25 11 th Bio-Zoology Kingdom Animalia Common characteristics of cockroach, housefly and mosquito are a) one pair each of wings and halters b) three pairs of legs and one pair of developed wings c) two pair of legs and two compound eye d) compound and simple eyes 247. The exoskeleton of insect is made up of a) pectin b) lignin c) chitin d) suberin 248. Collar cells are found in a) aschelminthes b) cnidaria c) arthropoda d) sponges 249. Ommatidia are the units that constitute the compound eyes in (AMU 1995) a) Fish b) Insects c) Mammals d) birds 250. Which of the following animals possesses ink gland? (AMU 2003) a) blue whale b) scorpion c) sea urchin d) cuttle fish LEVEL VI ( Questions) 251. Comb plates are present in (AMU 2004) a) echinoderms b) ctenophores c) annelids d) molluscs 252. Which of the following does not belong to phylum cnidaria? (AMU2004) a) Sea-pen b) Sea lily c) Sea-fan d) Sea anemone 253. Protonephridia are the excretory structures present in (AMU2005) a) Planaria b) Roundworm c) Tapeworm d) Prawn 254. Which of the following is not an annelid? (AMU2007) a) Leech b) Earthworm c) Sea mouse d) Sea cucumbers 255. Blood worms are the larvae of (AMU 2007) a) Hirudinaria b) Chironomus c) Limulus d) Daphnia 256. Pick the odd pair: (AMU 2008) a) Porifera : spicules b) Scyphozoan: coral reef c) Nematode : pseudocoelomate d) Cestoda: proglottid 257. Insect metamorphosis having larval stage is called (AFMC 1994) a) Incomplete metamorphosis b) Retrogressive metamorphosis c) Heteromorphosis d) Complete metamorphosis 258. Which of the following is not an insect? (AFMC 1996) a) Cockroach b) Spider c) Mosquito d) bedbug 259. Which of the following enters intestine by penetrating through skin (AFMC 2003) a) hook worm b) Ascaris c) Pin worm d) filarialworm 260. In nemathelminthes the coelom is not lined by peritoneum is (AFMC 2004) a) acoelom b) pseudocoelom c) enterocoelom d) haemocoel 261. Leech secretes which of the following anticoagulant? (AFMC 2004) a) hirudin b) heparin c) serotonin d) histamine 262. Canal system in porifera is not concerned with (AFMC 2005) a) respiration b) nutrition c) sexual reproduction d) none of these 263. Johnston s organ is present in (AFMC 2007) a) antenna of insect b) head of cockroach c) abdomen of housefly d) abdomen of spider 264. Which of the following is not an arachnid? (AFMC 2007) a) spider b) itchmite c) louse d) tick 265. Fasciola hepatica is (AFMC 2007) a) hermaphrodite. Self fertilizing b) hermaphrodite, cross fertilizing c) unisexual d) both (a) and (b) Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

26 11 th Bio-Zoology Kingdom Animalia Match the excretory organs listed under column I with the animals given under column II. Choose the answer which gives the correct combination of alphabets of the column. Column I Column II A) Nephridia p) Hydra B) Malpighian tubules q) Leech C) protonephridia r) Shark D) kidneys s) Round worms t) Cockroack a) A = q; B = t; C = s; D = r b) A = s ; B = q; C = p; D = t c) A = t; B = q; C = s; D = r d) A = q ; B = s ; C = t ; D = p 267. Entomology is concerned with the study of. a) formation and properties of soil b) agricultural practices c) various aspects of human life d) various aspects of insects 268. Which phylum of the animal Kingdom is exclusively marine? (Orissa 2003, 2006) a) porifera b) arthropoda c) echinodermata d) molluscs 269. Study of ticks and mites is a) Acarology b) Entomology c) Malacology d) Carcinology 270. Larva of mosquito is a) maggot b) caterpillar c) grub d) none of these 271. Transparent hairs on catkins and caterpillars function to? a) trap heat b) trap moisture c) reflect light d) drink water 272. Which of the following traits is not the characteristic of echinodermat? a) water vascular system b) trochophore larva c) Aristotle s lantern d) radial and indeterminate cleavage 273. Which of the following is pseudocoelomate? a) nematode b) chordate c) echinodermata d) arthropoda 274. Which is not correct for sponges? a) internal fertilization b) external fertilization c) gemmule formation d) gametes are formed from epidermal cells Triploblastic, schizocoelic, unsegmented soft bodied animals belongs to the phylum ( J&K 1998) a) annelid b) mollusca c) nemathelminthes d) none of the above 276. Which one of the following animals belongs to the phylum cnidaria? ( J&K1998) a) silver fish b) squid c) jelly fish d) Echidna 277. Palaemon ( prawn ) is a ( J&K 2000) a) fish b) insect c) soft shell mollusc d) crustacean 278. Tapeworm occurs as a parasite in ( J&K 2001) a) liver b) stomach c) intestine d) all of these 279. What distinguishes an insects from crustacean? (J&K 2002, 2005) a) number of eyes b) arrangement of nerve cords c) number of appendages d) presence of wings Leeches are usually (J&k 2005) a) herbivorous b) insectivorous c) carnivorous d) sanguvorous 281. Wichereia bancrofit is a common filarial worm. It belongs to the phylum (J&K 2007) a) Platyhelminthes b) Nemathelminthes c) Annelid d) Coelenterate 282. The dioecius animal is (J&K 2008) a) Liver fluke b) Aurella c) Tapeworm d) Earthworm Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

27 11 th Bio-Zoology Kingdom Animalia Malpighian tubles remove excretory products from a) Mouth b) Haemolymph c) Oesophagus d) Alimentary canal 284. Which of the following cell type is capable of giving rise to other cell types in sponges? a) Pinacocytes b) Archaeocytes c) Thesocytes d) Collencytes 285. The infective stage of Entamoeba histolytica is a) cyst b) spore c) egg d) trophozoite 286. Gonads of Obelia occur in a) on blastocyst b) inhydrula stage c) radial canals of medusa d) bases of entacles of medusa 287. Which one of the following features is common to leech, cockroach and scorpion? a) nephridia b) ventral nerve cord c) cephalization d) antennae 288. Excretory organs of flatworms are a) Malpighian tubules b) Neprons c) Protonephridia d) Nnepridia 289. Sea cucumbers belong to class a) Echinoidea b) Holothuroidea c) Ophiuroidea d) Asteroidean 290. One of the following is a very unique feature of the mammals (PMT2004, DPMT ) a) Homeothermy b) Presence of diaphragam c) Four chambered heart d) Rib cage 291. Uricotelisum is found in (PMT2004) a) Mammals and birds b) Fishes and fresh water protozoans c) Birds, reptiles and insects d) Frogs and toads 292. Which one of the following characters is not typical of the class mammalian? (PMT2004) a) Thecodont dentition b) Alveolar lungs c) Ten pairs of cranial nerves d) Seven cervical vertebrate 293. Which one of the following in birds, indicates their reptilian ancestry? (PMT 2008) a) Two specialchambers crop and gizzard intheir digestive tract b) Egs with a calcareous shell c) Scales on their hind limbs d) Four-chambered hear 294. Which one of the following pairs of animals comprises Jawless fishes? (PMT2009) a) Mackerals and rohu b) Lampreys and hag fishes c) Guppies and hag fishes d) Lampreys and eels 295. Camouflage of chameleon is associated with (AIIMS1995) a) Chromoplast b) Chromosome c) Chromatophore d) Chromomere 296. In fast swimming fishes, propulsion is due to (AIIMS 2000) a) Pelvic fin b) Pectoral fin c) Dorsal fin d) Caudal fin 297. Body temperature of cold blooded animals (AIIMS2000) a) Is constant b) Fluctuates with surrounding temperature c) Becomes very low times d) Is very cold 298. Which of the following is an egg laying mammal? (AIIMS2001) a) Kangaroo b) Platypus c) penguin d) whale 299. Which of the following are uricotelic animals? (AIIMS2002) a) rohu and frog b) camel and frog c) lizard and crow d) earthworm and eagle 300. Which of the following does not come under the class mammals? (AIIMS2007) a) flying fox b) hedgehog c) manatee d) lamprey LEVEL VII ( Questions) 301. Which of the following is concerned with the formation of urea in rabbit? (BHU 1994,2007) a) spleen b) kidney c) blood d) liver 302. Lateral line is present in (BHU 1996) a) dog fish b) jelly fish c) starfish d) none of these Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

28 11 th Bio-Zoology Kingdom Animalia The largest and heaviest mammals in the world is (BHU1994) a) blue whale b) elephant c) lion d) tiger 304. Ichithyophis is a member of (AIIMS 1997) a) amphibian b) mollsca c) reptilian d) annelid 305. Renal portal system is absent in (AIIMS 1998, 2008) a) reptiles b) amphibians c) reptiles and amphibians d) birds 306. Bone marrow is absent in (AIIMS 2000) a) reptilian b) amphibian c) fishes d) birds 307. Urea is formed in which organ in rabbit? (AIIMS 2001) a) liver b) kidney c) spleen d) lung 308. Which of the following is not classified amphibian? (AIIMS2003) a) frog b) salamander c) tortoise d) ichthiophis 309. The excretory material of bony fish is (AIIMS 2004) a) urea b) protein c) ammonia d) amino acid 310. Limbless amphibians belong to the order (AIIMS 2007) a) anura b) urodela c) gymnophiona d) lissamphibia 311. Which of the following snakes is non-poisonous? (AIIMS 2007) a) cobra b) krait c) viper d) python 312. Placoid scales are found in (AIIMS 2008) a) reptilia b) bony fishes c) cartilaginous fishes d) amphibians 313. Which of the following is a correct sequence of decreasing order of number of species? (AIIMS 2008) a) aves, pisces, reptiles, amphibians, mammals b) pisees, aves, reptiles, mammals, amphibians c) pisees, mammals, reptile, amphibians, aves d) amphibians aves, pisces, mammals, reptiles 314. Excretory organ in Balanoglossus are (DPMT 1991,2008) a) nephridia b) antennary gland c) collar cord d) proboscis gland 315. Reptiles share which of the following character with birds and mammals? (DPMT 1994) a) Amnion b) Homeothermy c) Diaphragm d) Hipple 316. Cowper s gland is present in (DPMT 1996) a) Frog b) Earthworm c) Rabbit d) Cockroach 317. Which of the following pairs belong to the category of cold blooded animals? (DPMT 1998) a) bat & rate b) snakes & birds c) frog & snakes d) birds & monke 318. The character of birds without exception is (UP-CPMT 1995) a) omnivorous b) beak without teeth c) flying wings d) lay eggs with calcareous shells 319. Quill feathersa. the base of quill wings are called (UP-CPMT 1995) a) remiges b) coverts c) barbules d) down feathers 320. Which of the following pair of orgaisms are uricotelic? (UP-CPMT 2000) a) cartilaginous fishes and mammals b) reptiles and mammals c) birds and insects d) bony fishes and lizards 321. Which one of the following features is present in some stage of the life history of all chordates? (UP-CPMT 2000) a) Blood flowing forward in dorsal blood vessel b) Phyaryngeal gill slits c) A ventral hollow nerve cord d) Heart lying dorsally 322. Thoracic cage in rabbit is made up of (UP-CPMT 2006) a) Ribs, vertebral column & diaphragm b) Ribs, diaphragm & sternum c) Vertebral column, diaphragm & sternum d) Ribs, vertebral column & sternum 323. Which of the following has exoskeleton of scales and paired copulatory organ or penis? (UP-CPMT 2007) a) Sharks b) Lizards c) Urodela d) Urochordata Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

29 11 th Bio-Zoology Kingdom Animalia In the urinogenital organs of rabbit which one of following part is present in male but not in female? (UP-CPMT 2005) a) Urethra b) Fallopian tube c) Vagina d) Vas deferens 325. Laterally compressed tail is found in a) Fresh water snakes b) Terrestrial snakes c) Marine non-poisonous snakes d) Marine poisonous snakes 326. Which of the following is characteristic feature of fishes? a) Tail and venous heart b) Epidermal scales and tail c) Venous heart and gills d) Epidermal scales and gills 327. Similarity between fish and tadpole is a) Scales b) Legs c) Lateral line d) Fins 328. Four-chambered heart is present in a) frog b) crocodile c) shark d) lizard 329. Right aortic arch is present in a) reptiles only b) mammals only c) birds only d) both birds and mammals 330. Kidney of adult reptiles are (AMU 1996) a) measonephric b) metanephric c) pronephric d) both (a) and (b) 331. Marine fishes drink sea water to (AMU 2001) a) meet their body salt requirements b) compensate loss of water from their body c) flush out nitrogenous wastes from their body d) achieve all of the above 332. In which of the following fishes the males have brood pouch, where eggs laid by the female remain till they hatch? (AMU 2002) a) Lung fish b) Climbing perch c) Salmon d) Sea horse 333. Match the names of branches of science listed under column- I with the field study given under column- II choose the choice which gives the correct combination of the alphabets. (AMU-2000) Column I (Branch of Science) Column II (Field of study) A Mycology p Study of birds B Ornithology q Study of worms C Herpetology r Study of fishes D lethylogy s Study of fungi t Study of reptiles a) A=s, B=p, C=t, D=r b) A=q, B=s C=r, D=t c) A=s, B=t, C=p, D=r d) A=p, B=s, C=r, D=t 334. Identify the edible fresh water teleosts (AMU2001) a) Sharks b) Rays and skates c) Hilsa ilisha d) Catla catla 335. Turtles are (AMU2002) a) Pisces b) Repties c) Molluscans d) Arthropods 336. Harversian systems are found in the bones of (AMU2002) a) Pigeon b) Panther c) Pipe fish d) Python 337. Which of the following statements is true? (AMU 2003) a) All chordates are vertebrates b) All vertebrates are chordates c) Invertebrates possess a tubular nerve cord d) Nonchordates a have a vertebral column 338. Chosse the cat fish from the following (AMU 2004) a) Cirrhina mrigala b) Wallago attu c) Labeo rohita d) Catla catla Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

30 11 th Bio-Zoology Kingdom Animalia A four chambered heart is not found in. (AMU2004) a) Mammals b) Birds c) Snake d) Crocodile 340. Choose the correct combination of alphabets which matches the zoological names given under column I with their common names given under clumnii (AMU 2002) Column I Column II A Labeo rohita E Jungle fow I B Gallus gallus F Carp C Bos indicus G Tussar silkmoth D Antheraea mylitta H cattle a) A=F, B=G, C=E, D=H b) A=G, B=E C=H, D=F c) A=F, B=E, C=H, D=G d) A=F, B=E, C=G, D=H 341. Calotes versicolor is a (AMU 1997) a) House lizard b) Rock lizard c) Garden lizard d) Flying lizard 342. Scientific name of king cobra is (AMU 2002) a) Naja naja b) Amphiliabs c) Naja nannah d) Vipera russelli 343. Branch of zoology dealing with the study of amphibians and reptiles is called (AMU 2003) a) Ichthyology b) Ornithology c) Herpetology d) Malacology 344. Adaptation of colour vision is found in (AMU 2006) a) Mammals b) Aves c) Reptiles d) All of these 345. Epidermal scale is the characteristic feature of class reptilian, which of the following class is without epidermal scale? (AMU2006) a) Fish b) Aves c) Mammals d) Amphibians 346. Duck-billed platypus is a connecting link between (AMU 2007) a) Reptile & bird b) Living andnonliving c) Reptile & mammal d) Echinodermata & chordate 347. Which of the following is an egg laying mammal? (J&K 2005) a) Dolphin b) Platypus c) Whale d) Walrus 348. In sharks, one of the following is absent (J&K 2008) a) Claspers b) Placoid scales c) Cartilaginous endoskeleton d) Air bladder 349. Which one of the following animals belongs to cyclostomata? (J&K2008) a) Channa b) Loris c) Dodo d) Pertomyzon 350. Which of the following is dominant in desert? a) Lizard b) Tiger c) Leopard d) hyla 351. Two examples in which the nitrogenous wastes are excreted from body in the form of uric acid are a) birds and lizards b) insects and bony fishes c) mammals and molluscs d) frogs and cartilaginous fishes 352. The arrangement of ear ossicles in mammalian ear is a) stapes malleus, incus b) malleus, incus, stapes c) incus, malleus, stapes d) columella, malleus, incus 353. Snake has a) movable eyelids b) immovable eyelids c) no cyclids d) eyelids in pouches 354. Which among these is correct combination of aquatic mammals? (NEET 2017) a) Dolphins, seals, Trogon b) Whales, Dolphin, Seals. c) Trygon, Whales, Seals d) Seals, Dolphin, Sharks. Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

31 11 th Bio-Zoology Kingdom Animalia In case of poriferance, the spongocoel is lined with flagellated cells called, (NEET 2017) a) Oscula b) Coenocytes c) Mesenchymal cells d) Ostia 356. Which is the National Aquatic animal of India (NEET 2016) a) River Dolphin b) Blue whale c) Sea horse d) Gangetic shark 357. An important characteristic that Hemichordates share with chordates is. (NEET 2017) a) Ventral tubular nerve chord b) Pharynx with gill slits. c) Pharynx without gill slits. d) Absence of not chord 358. Identify the animal given in the diagram. Picture Based Questions Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

32 11 th Bio-Zoology Kingdom Animalia Label the Parts A, B, C,D, E and F in the given diagram. 1. Diagrammatic representation of Balanoglossus 2. A Typical Chordate 3. Example of Cephalochordata Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

33 11 th Bio-Zoology Tissue Level of Organisation UNIT II CHAPTER - 3 TISSUE LEVEL OF ORGANISATION LEVEL I (1-50 Questions) TRY AND TEST YOURSELF 1. The main function of the cuboidal epithelium is a) Protection b) Secretion c) Absorption d) Both (b) and (c) 2. The ciliated epithelium lines the a) Skin b) Digestive tract c) Gall bladder d) Trachea 3. What type of fibres are found in connective tissue matrix? a) Collagen b) Areolar c) Cartilage d) Tubular 4. Prevention of substances from leaking across the tissue is provided by a) Tight junction b) Adhering junction c) Gap junction d) Elastic junction 5. Non-shivering thermogenesis in neonates produces heat through a) White fat b) Brown fat c) Yellow fat d) Colourless fat 6. Which of the following epidermal structure is not seen in the exoskeleton of pigeon? a) horny claws b) scales c) feathers d) carapace 7. Which type of feather is seen in the nestlings of pigeon? a) down feather b) quill feather c) contour feather d) filoplumes 8. Pick out the function of quill feather of pigeon. a) to cover the body b) to secrete oil c) to keep the body cool d) flight 9. The only cutaneous gland present in pigeon which secretes oil. a) sweat gland b) preen gland c) mucous gland d) tear gland 10. Which part of the quill feather supplies nutrients and pigments for the growing feathers? a) rachis b) hypo rachis c) superior umbilicus d) inferior umbilicus 11. Which of the following is not flight adaptation of pigeon? a) streamlined body b) quill feathers c) tail d) cere above the beak 12. Which structure of pigeon is used as a rudder during flight? a) the tail b) legs c) neck d) beak 13. Which of the following air sac of pigeon is unpaired? a) Inter clavicular air sac b) clavicular air sac c) Abdominal air sac d) anterior thoracic air sac 14. Which structure of pigeon s eye is considered as an important adaptation for their flight? a) lens b) ciliary process c) pecten d) iris 15. Which organ(s) of pigeons are very much reduced for their aerial mode of life? a) left ovary b) right ovary c) urinary bladder d) a and c 16. tissue is used to covering. a) Epithelial tissue b) Nervous tissue c) Muscle tissue d) Connective tissue 17. Tissues are organized in specific proportions and patterns to form. a) Organ systems b) Organs c) Living fabrics d) Tissues 18. Groups of cells that are similar in structure. a) Tissues b) Organ systems c) Living fabrics d) Organs Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

34 11 th Bio-Zoology Tissue Level of Organisation If two or more organs perform common physical and chemical functions. a) Organs b) Tissues c) Living fabrics d) Organ systems 20. The tissues are called the. a) Organ systems b) Organs c) Living fabrics d) Tissues 21. found in the organs of absorption, secretion and filtration. a) Simple epithelium b) Columnar epithelium c) Squamous epithelium d) Cuboidal epithelium 22. Group of cells that are similar in structure and function are called a) Organ b) Organ system c) Tissues d) Germ layers 23. tissue is used to movement. a) Epithelial tissue b) Nervous tissue c) Muscle tissue d) Connective tissue 24. tissue is used to support. a) Muscle tissue b) Connective tissue c) Epithelial tissue d) Nervous tissue 25. is composed of a single layer of cells. a) Simple epithelium b) Columnar epithelium c) Squamous epithelium d) Cuboidal epithelium 26. tissue is used to control. a) Muscle tissue b) Connective tissue c) Epithelial tissue d) Nervous tissue 27. The ciliated columnar epithelial cells in humans are knows to occur in. a) Bile duct and oesophagus b) Fallopian tubes and urethra c) Eustachian tube and stomach lining d) Bronchioles and fallopian tubes 28. is composed of single layer of tall cells with round to oval nuclei at the base. a) Cuboidal epithelium b) Squamous epithelium c) Columnar epithelium d) Simple epithelium 29. is made of a single layer of cube like cells. a) Simple epithelium b) Columnar epithelium c) Squamous epithelium d) Cuboidal epithelium 30. is made of a single thin layer of flattened cells. a) Cuboidal epithelium b) Squamous epithelium c) Columnar epithelium d) Simple epithelium 31. found in the kidney tubules, ducts and secretory portions of small glands. a) Squamous epithelium b) Simple epithelium c) Columnar epithelium d) Cuboidal epithelium 32. found in the kidney glomeruli, air sacs of lungs, lining of heart, blood vessels. a) Columnar epithelium b) Squamous epithelium c) Simple epithelium d) Cuboidal epithelium 33. lines the small bronchioles, fallopian tubes and uterus. a) Goblet cell b) Microvilli c) Ciliated epithelium d) Nonciliated epithelium type 34. If the columnar cells bear cilia on their free surfaces. a) Nonciliated epithelium type b) Microvilli c) Ciliated epithelium d) Goblet cell 35. The presence of on the apical surface of the absorptive cells. a) Microvilli b) Ciliated epithelium c) Goblet cell d) Nonciliated epithelium type 36. propels mucus by ciliary actions. a) Nonciliated epithelium type b) Goblet cell c) Ciliated epithelium d) Microvilli Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

35 11 th Bio-Zoology Tissue Level of Organisation secretes the protective lubricating mucus. a) Microvilli b) Goblet cell c) Nonciliated epithelium type d) Ciliated epithelium 38. is closely attached to skeletal bones. a) Smooth muscle b) cardiac muscle c) Musele fibers d) Striped muscle 39. are isolated glandular cells of the alimentary canal. a) Glandular epithelium b) Pseudo-stratified epithelial c) Goblet cells d) Salivary gland 40. appears to be multi-layered because the nuclei lie at different levels. a) Pseudo-stratified epithelial b) Salivary gland c) Goblet cells d) Glandular epithelium 41. lines most of the digestive tract, gall bladder and secretory ducts of glands. a) Microvilli b) Ciliated epithelium c) Goblet cell d) Nonciliated epithelium type 42. cells get specialized for secretion. a) Pseudo-stratified epithelial b) Glandular epithelium c) Salivary gland d) Goblet cells 43. is a fluid connective tissue. a) Lymph b) Blood c) Mucus d) Saliva 44. cells are columnar, but unequal in size. a) Pseudo-stratified epithelial b) Glandular epithelium c) Salivary gland d) Goblet cells 45. cover the dry surface of the skin, the moist surface of buccal cavity. a) Endocrine glands b) Exocrine glands c) Compound epithelium d) Keratinized squamous epithelium type 46. do not have ducts. a) Compound epithelium b) Endocrine glands c) Exocrine glands d) Keratinized squamous epithelium type 47. is consisting of cluster of cells. a) Pseudo-stratified epithelial b) Goblet cells c) Glandular epithelium d) Salivary gland 48. is made of more than one layer of cells. a) Exocrine glands b) Keratinized squamous epithelium type c) Compound epithelium d) Endocrine glands 49. secrete mucus, saliva, digestive enzymes and other cell products. a) Exocrine glands b) Compound epithelium c) Endocrine glands d) Keratinized squamous epithelium type 50. The study of tissues is known as: a) Histology b) Anatomy c) Physiology d) Genetics LEVEL II ( Questions) 51. is found lining the ureters, urinary bladder and part of the urethra. a) Non keratinized squamous epithelium type b) Stratified columnar epithelium c) Stratified cuboidal epithelium d) Transitional Epithelium 52. mostly found in the ducts of sweat glands and mammary glands. a) Stratified columnar epithelium b) Stratified cuboidal epithelium c) Non keratinized squamous epithelium type d) Transitional Epithelium 53. is widely distributed in the body. a) Tight junctions b) Gap junctions c) Adhering junctions d) Connective tissue Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

36 11 th Bio-Zoology Tissue Level of Organisation forms the dry epidermis of the skin. a) Exocrine glands b) Compound epithelium c) Endocrine glands d) Keratinized squamous epithelium type 55. found around the pharynx, male urethra and lining of some glandular ducts. a) Transitional Epithelium b) Stratified cuboidal epithelium c) Stratified columnar epithelium d) Non keratinized squamous epithelium type 56. forms the moist lining of the oesophagus, mouth, conjunctiva of the eyes. a) Non keratinized squamous epithelium type b) Stratified cuboidal epithelium c) Transitional Epithelium d) Stratified columnar epithelium 57. is the type of modified columnar epithelium which secretes the protective lubricating mucus a) Sebaceous gland b) Oil glands c) Mast cells d) Goblet cells 58. facilitate the cells to communicate with each other. a) Tight junctions b) Connective tissue c) Gap junctions d) Adhering junctions 59. help to stop substances from leaking across a tissue. a) Tight junctions b) Gap junctions c) Adhering junctions d) Connective tissue 60. develops from the mesoderm. a) Gap junctions b) Adhering junctions c) Tight junctions d) Connective tissue 61. perform cementing to keep neighbouring cells together. a) Connective tissue b) Adhering junctions c) Gap junctions d) Tight junctions 62. aredense regular, dense irregular and elastic. a) Connective tissues b) Loose connective tissues c) Fibres d) Dense connective tissues 63. The of connective tissue provide support. a) Dense connective tissues b) Fibres c) Loose connective tissues d) Connective tissues 64. The secretions of endocrine glands are called a) Enzymes b) Hormones c) Granules d) Cell fragments 65. includes fat and the fibrous tissue of ligaments. a) Adhering junctions b) Tight junctions c) Gap junctions d) Connective tissue 66. are Areolar, Adipose and Reticular. a) Dense connective tissues b) Fibres c) Loose connective tissues d) Connective tissues 67. All consist of three main components namely fibres, ground substance and cells. a) Connective tissues b) Loose connective tissues c) Fibres d) Dense connective tissues 68. is similar to areolar tissue in structure and function. a) Specialized connective tissues b) Tissue fluid c) Areolar connective tissue d) Adipose tissue 69. Acts as a reservoir of water and salts for body tissues, hence aptly called. a) Adipose tissue b) Areolar connective tissue c) Tissue fluid d) Specialized connective tissues 70. include cartilage, bone and blood. a) Specialized connective tissues b) Tissue fluid c) Areolar connective tissue d) Adipose tissue 71. is called white fat. a) Adipocytes b) Adipose tissue c) White fat d) Brown fat 72. is richly vascularised indicating its high metabolic activity. a) White fat b) Adipose tissue c) Brown fat d) Adipocytes Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

37 11 th Bio-Zoology Tissue Level of Organisation contains fibroblasts, macrophages, and mast cells. a) Adipose tissue b) Areolar connective tissue c) Tissue fluid d) Specialized connective tissues 74. beneath the skin acts as a support framework for epithelium. a) Specialized connective tissues b) Areolar connective tissue c) Adipose tissue d) Tissue fluid 75. located beneath the skin. a) Tissue fluid b) Areolar connective tissue c) Specialized connective tissue d) Adipose tissue 76. While fasting, maintains life by producing and supplying energy as fuel. a) White fat b) Adipose tissue c) Brown fat d) Adipocytes 77. commonly called adipose or fat cells. a) Adipocytes b) Brown fat c) Adipose tissue d) White fat 78. resembles areolar connective tissue, but, the matrix is filled with fibroblasts. a) Reticular connective tissue b) Dense regular connective tissues c) Dense connective tissues d) Dense irregular connective tissues 79. produces heat by non-shivering thermogenesis in neonates. a) Adipocytes b) White fat c) Brown fat d) Adipose tissue 80. stores nutrients. a) Brown fat b) Adipose tissue c) Adipocytes d) White fat 81. The adipose tissue which contains abundant mitochondria is called. a) Adipose tissue b) Adipocytes c) Brown fat d) White fat 82. is used to heat the blood stream to warm the body. a) White fat b) Adipose tissue c) Brown fat d) Adipocytes 83. Dry epidermis of the skin is lined with: a) Keratinized type of stratified squamous epithelium b) Stratified cuboidal epithelium c) Non keratinized type of stratified squamous epithelium d) Trarcitional epithelium 84. contains high proportion of elastic fibres. a) Elastic connective tissue b) Bones c) Cartilages d) Specialised connective tissues 85. primarily contain collagen fibres in rows. a) Dense connective tissues b) Reticular connective tissue c) Dense regular connective tissues d) Dense irregular connective tissues 86. forms an internal framework, stroma. a) Reticular connective tissue b) Dense irregular connective tissues c) Dense regular connective tissues d) Dense connective tissues 87. have bundles of fibres and fibroblasts which are arranged irregularly. a) Reticular connective tissue b) Dense regular connective tissues c) Dense connective tissues d) Dense irregular connective tissues 88. Fibres and fibroblasts are compactly packed in the. a) Dense irregular connective tissues b) Dense connective tissues c) Dense regular connective tissues d) Reticular connective tissue 89. The skeletal muscles and bones are attached by: a) fibroblast b) stroma c) tendons d) cartilages Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

38 11 th Bio-Zoology Tissue Level of Organisation present in the tip of nose, outer ear, ear pinna, vertebral column, limbs. a) Bones b) Specialised connective tissues c) Cartilages d) Elastic connective tissue 91. are classified as cartilage, bones and blood. a) Bones b) Specialised connective tissues c) Cartilages d) Elastic connective tissue 92. allows recoil of tissues following stretching. a) Elastic connective tissue b) Specialised connective tissues c) Bones d) Cartilages 93. maintains the pulsatile flow of blood through the arteries. a) Elastic connective tissue b) Bones c) Cartilages d) Specialised connective tissues 94. Most of the in vertebrate embryos are replaced by bones in adults. a) Elastic connective tissue b) Bones c) Cartilages d) Specialised connective tissues 95. defect in the synthesis of collagen in the joints, heart valves. a) Lacunae b) Bone c) Blood d) Ehler s -Danlos syndrome 96. is the main tissue that provides structural frame to the body. a) Bone b) Blood c) Lacunae d) Ehler s -Danlos syndrome 97. have a hard and non-pliable ground substance rich in calcium salts. a) Elastic connective tissue b) Cartilages c) Specialised connective tissues d) Bones 98. is the fluid connective tissue containing plasma, RBC, WBC and platelets. a) Ehler s-danlos syndrome b) Lacunae c) Blood d) Bone 99. The bone cells (osteocytes) are present in the spaces called. a) Blood b) Lacunae c) Bone d) Ehler s -Danlos syndrome 100. helps to stop substances from leaking across a tissue. a) Gapjunction b) Tissue junction c) Tightjunction d) Adhering junction LEVEL III ( Questions) 101. Progressive inability to secrete saliva and tears. a) Stickler syndrome b) Rheumatoid arthritis c) Rhabdomyosarcoma d) Sjogren s syndrome 102. The immune cells attack and inflame the membranes around the joints. a) Stickler syndrome b) Sjogren s syndrome c) Rheumatoid arthritis d) Rhabdomyosarcoma 103. affects collagen and results in facial abnormalities. a) Stickler syndrome b) Sjogren s syndrome c) Rheumatoid arthritis d) Rhabdomyosarcoma 104. can also affect heart, lungs and eyes. a) Rhabdomyosarcoma b) Sjogren s syndrome c) Rheumatoid arthritis d) Stickler syndrome 105. Life threatening soft tissue tumour of head, neck and urinogenital tract. a) Rheumatoid arthritis b) Rhabdomyosarcoma c) Stickler syndrome d) Sjogren s syndrome 106. fibres taper at both ends (fusiform) and do not show striations. a) Skeletal muscle tissue b) Autopsy c) Biopsy d) Smooth muscle 107. is a post-mortem,dissection of a dead body. a) Skeletal muscle tissue b) Autopsy c) Biopsy d) Smooth muscle Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

39 11 th Bio-Zoology Tissue Level of Organisation is an examination of tissue or liquid removed from a living body. a) Biopsy b) Smooth muscle c) Skeletal muscle tissue d) Autopsy 109. is closely attached to skeletal bones. a) Biopsy b) Smooth muscle c) Skeletal muscle tissue d) Autopsy 110. examination to discover the cause of death. a) Smooth muscle b) Autopsy c) Skeletal muscle tissue d) Biopsy 111. exerts the greatest control over the body s responsiveness. a) Cardiac muscle tissue b) Alzheimer s disease c) Parkinson s disease d) Nervous tissue 112. The adipose tissue which contains abundant mitochondria is called: a) whrte fat b) fat cells c) brownfat d) white adipose tissue 113. degenerative disorder of the nervous system. a) Nervous tissue b) Parkinson s disease c) Alzheimer s disease d) Cardiac muscle tissue 114. are involuntary as their functions cannot be directly controlled. a) Autopsy b) Biopsy c) Skeletal muscle tissue d) Smooth muscle 115. is a chronic neuro degenerative disease. a) Parkinson s disease b) Cardiac muscle tissue c) Alzheimer s disease d) Nervous tissue 116. is a contractile tissue present only in the heart. a) Cardiac muscle tissue b) Alzheimer s disease c) Parkinson s disease d) Nervous tissue 117. immune cells derived from monocytes. a) Lacunae b) Collagen c) Acinus d) Macrophages 118. a triple helix protein which allows for great tensile strength. a) Macrophages b) Collagen c) Lacunae d) Acinus 119. cells arranged into a circular secretory unit. a) Acinus b) Lacunae c) Collagen d) Macrophages 120. cavity or depression especially in the bone. a) Acinus b) Macrophages c) Lacunae d) Collagen NEET BASED QUESTIONS: 121. Transitional epithelium occurs in : (MHTCET 2008) a) Blood vessels b) Trachea c) Kidney d) Ureter/urinary bladder 122. The study of tissues is known as : (MPPMT 2010) a) Physiology b) Ecology c) Histology d) Anatomy 123. Find out the wrong match : a) Eosinophils Allergic response b) Basophils Secrete histamine and serotonin c) Monocytes Secrete heparin d) Lymphocytes Immune response 124. The outer covering of cartilage is called. (WB 2010) a) Peritoneum b) Periosteum c) Endosteum d) Perichondrium 125. Skin is : (CPMT 2010) a) Cubiodal epithelium b) Stratified epithelium c) Coloumnar epithelium d) Pseudostratified epithelumn 126. Matrix of bone and cartilage can be distinguished by the presence of : a) Lacunae b) Chromatophar c) Haversian canals d) Adipose cells Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

40 11 th Bio-Zoology Tissue Level of Organisation Which type of tissue forms glands : (MPPMT 2010) a) Epithelial b) Muscular c) Nervous d) Connective 128. Match the animals listed in column-i to blood listed in column-ii. (KCET 2010) Column-I Column-II (P) Man (i) Plasma and cells are colourless (Q) Earth worm (ii) Plasma colourless and nucleated RBC (R) Cockroach (S) Frog (iii) Plasma colourless and enucleated RBC (iv) Plasma red and nucleated colourless RBC (v) Plasma and RBS have haemoglobin a) (P-iii), (Q-iv), (R-i), (S-ii) b) (P-iv), (Q-v), (R-iii), (S-ii) c) (P-i), (Q-iv), (R-ii), (S-iii) d) (P-v), (Q-iii), (R-i), (S-iv) 129. Which of the following blood cells help in blood coagulation. a) RBCs b) Lymphocytes c) Thrombocytes d) Basophils 130. Fibroblasts macrophages and mast cells are present in : a) Cartilage tissue b) Areolar tissue c) Adipose tissue d) Glandular epithelium 131. Which type of epithelium is involved in a function to move particles or mucus in specific direction : (HPPMT 2010) a) Squamous epithelium b) Cuboidal epitheliumc c) Columnar epitheliumd d) Ciliatal epithelium 132. Which of these is not found in connective tissue : (MPPMT 2010) a) Collagen fibres b) Basement membrane c) Hyaluronic acid d) Fluid 133. Multi-lobed nucleus and granular cytoplasm are characteristics of which of the WBCs : a) Neutrophils b) Monocytes c) Lymphocytes d) Eosinophils 134. Which one of the following plasma proteins is involved in the coagulation of blood. a) globulin b) Fibrinogen c) albumin d) Serum amylase 135. Which of the following is not a connecting tissue. (CPMT 2010) a) Blood b) bone c) Lymph d) Nerve Picture Based Question 136. Label the Parts A, B, C & D in the given diagram. Nervous tissues with Neuroglia Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

41 11 th Bio-Zoology Organ and Organ Systems in Animals UNIT II CHAPTER - 4 ORGAN AND ORGAN SYSTEMS IN ANIMALS TRY AND TEST YOURSELF LEVEL I (1-50 Questions) 1. The clitellum is a distinct part in the body of earthworm Lampito mauritii, it is found in? a) Segments b) Segments c) Segments d) Segments Sexually, earthworms are a) Sexes are separate b) Hermaphroditic but not self - fertilizing c) Hermaphroditic and self fertilizing d) Parthenogenic 3. To sustain themselves, earthworms must guide their way through the soil using their powerful muscles. They gather nutrients by ingesting organic matter and soil, absorbing what they need into their bodies.true or False: The two ends of the earthworm can equally ingest soil. a) True b) False 4. The head region of Cockroach pairs of and shaped eyes occur. a) One pair, sessile compound and kidney shaped b) Two pairs, stalked compound and round shaped c) Many pairs, sessile simple and kidney shaped d) Many pairs, stalked compound and kidney shaped 5. The location and numbers of malpighian tubules in Periplaneta. a) At the junction of midgut and hindgut, about 150. b) At the junction of foregut and midgut, about 150. c) Surrounding gizzard, eight. d) At the junction of colon and rectum, eight. 6. The type of vision in Cockroach is a) Three dimensional b) Two dimensional c) Mosaic d) Cockroach do not have vision 7. How many abdominal segments are present in male and female Cockroaches? a) 10, 10 b) 9, 10 c) 8, 10 d) 9, 9 8. Which of the following does not have an open circulatory system? a) Frog b) Earthworm c) Pigeon d) Cockroach 9. Buccopharyngeal respiration in frog a) is increased when nostrils are closed b) Stops when there is pulmonary respiration c) is increased when it is catching fly d) stops when mouth is opened 10. Kidney of frog is a) Archinephros b) Mesonephros c) Pronephros d) Metanephros 11. Presence of gills in the tadpole of frog indicates that a) fishes were amphibious in the past b) fishes involved from frog -like ancestors c) frogs will have gills in future d) frogs evolved from gilled ancestor 12. Choose the wrong statement among the following: a) In earthworm, a single male genital pore is present. b) Setae help in locomotion of earthworms. c) Muscular layer in the body wall of earthworm is made up of only circular muscles. d) Typhlosole is part of the intestine of earthworm. Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

42 11 th Bio-Zoology Organ and Organ Systems in Animals Which of the following are the sense organs of Cockroach? a) Antennae, compound eyes, maxillary palps, anal cerci b) Antennae, compound eye, maxillary palps c) Antennae, ommatidia, maxillary palps, sternum d) Antennae, eyes, maxillary palps, and tarsus of walking legs 14. Excretory organs of earthworms are a) Flame cells b) Nephridia c) Kidney d) Ctenidium 15. Which of the following pores of earthworm is single? a) Male genital pore b) Female genital pore c) Nephridiopres d) Spermathecal apertures 16. Respiration in Earthworm (I) is aerobic (II) occurs through body surface (III) occurs through tracheal system (IV) through gills a) I alone is correct b) I and II are correct c) I, II and III are correct d) All are wrong 17. In earthworms, setae is absent in the a) Clitellum b) First segment c) Clitellum and last segment d) Clitellum, first and last segment 18. In earthworm, cocoon is formed by a) Epidermal muscles b) Setae c) Cuticle d) Clitellum 19. Number of spiracle pairs in Periplaneta americana is? a) 8 b) 9 c) 10 d) Cockroach blood does not contain respiratory pigment. How does its cells receive oxygen? a) Cells do not acquire oxygen b) Cockroach respires anaerobically c) By diffusion d) Through tracheoles. 21. Antennae of cockroach have a) Gustatory receptors b) Auditory receptors c) Tactile receptors d) Tactile and olfactory receptors 22. In cockroach, the ootheca is formed by the secretion of a) Phallic gland b) Collaterial gland c) Mushroom gland d) Conglobate gland 23. Which structure is absent in a cockroach s leg? a) tibia b) coxa c) femur d) fibula 24. Phallic organs in cockroach are related to? a) Male excretory system b) Male reproductive system c) Female excretory system d) Female reproductive system 25. The type of mouth parts seen in cockroach is a) Piercing and sucking type b) Chewing and lapping type c) Biting and chewing type d) Siphoning type 26. Cockroach mainly excretes a) Uric acid b) Urea c) Ammonia d) Amino acid 27. The young one of cockroach is called as? a) Caterpillar b) Nymph c) Fingerling d) Maggot 28. Identify the correct sequence respiratory system of cockroach? a) Spriacles-trachea-tracheoles-tissues b) Trachea-tracheoles-tissues-spriacles c) Tracheoles-tissues-spriacles-trachea d) Spriacles-tracheoles-trachea-tissues 29. Which gland plays a key role in metamorphosis of Tadpole? a) Thymus b) Thyroid c) Pancreas d) Adrenal Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

43 11 th Bio-Zoology Organ and Organ Systems in Animals Tadpoles of frog are a) Ureotelic b) Ammonotelic c) Uricotelic d) None of these 31. In Frog, mesorchium is a thin fold membrane extending between? a) Two testis b) Liver and kidneys c) Two kidneys d) Kidney and testes 32. The two lateral ventricles in the brain of frog communicate with the third ventricle through a) Rhinocoel b) Foramen magnum c) Aqueductus of Sylvius d) Foramen of Monro 33. Which of the following blood vessels in the circulatory system of frog has more oxygenated blood? a) Pulmonary artery b) Pulmocutaneous artery c) Precaval veins d) Pulmocutaneous vein 34. The number of cranial nerves in frog are a) 12 Pairs b) 8 Pairs c) 9 pairs d) 10 pairs 35. Kidney of frog is a) Mesonephric b) Metanephric c) Pronephric d) Anephric 36. Which of the following blood vessel in the circulatory system of frog has more deoxygenated blood? a) Pulmocutaneous artery b) Pulmonary artery c) Pulmocutaneous vein d) Carotid artery 37. The type respiration seen in frogs in water is a) Cutaneous respiration b) Buccal respiration c) Pulmonary respiration d) None of these 38. Upper lip like structure of earthworm is also known as a) Peristomium b) Prostomium c) Pygidium d) Labium 39. are found in upper layers of the soil. a) Lampito mauritii b) Epigeics c) Earthworms d) Anecics 40. are considered as Friends of Farmers. a) Anecics b) Earthworms c) Epigeics d) Lampito mauritii 41. is nocturnal and during the day it lives in burrows. a) Lampito mauritii b) Epigeics c) Earthworms d) Anecics 42. are surface dwellers. a) Earthworms b) Lampito mauritii c) Epigeics d) Anecics 43. earthworm is a terrestrial invertebrate. a) Lampito mauritii b) Anecics c) Epigeics d) Earthworms 44. Earthwormdivides it into a number of compartments called segments or. a) Porphyrin b) Lampito mauritii c) Endogeics d) Metameres 45. are found in deeper layers of the soil. a) Endogeics b) Porphyrin c) Lampito mauritii d) Metameres 46. is commonly found in Tamil Nadu. a) Porphyrin b) Lampito mauritii c) Endogeics d) Metameres 47. The earthworm in gardens, can be traced by their faecal deposits known as: a) vermiwash b) vermicompost c) worm castings d) wormery 48. This colour of the earthworm is mainly due to the presence of pigment. a) Lampito mauritii b) Endogeics c) Porphyrin d) Metameres 49. The are present in earthworm from the 10th segment onwards. a) Dorsal pores b) Female genital aperture c) Coelomic fluid d) Male genital apertures Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

44 11 th Bio-Zoology Organ and Organ Systems in Animals Match the following. A) Epigeics - i) First segment B) Anecics - ii) Overhanging the mouth C) Endogeics - iii) Last segment D) Peristomium - iv) Octochaetona thurstoni E) Prostomium - v) Lampito mauritii F) Pygidium - vi) Perionyx excavatus a) A i), B ii), C iii), D iv), E v), F vi) b) A vi), B v), C iv), D iii), E ii), F i) c) A v), B vi), C iii), D iv), E i), F ii) d) A vi), B v), C iv), D i), E ii), F iii) LEVEL II ( Questions) 51. An earthworm is divided 14th 17th segments region. a) Post clitellar b) Pre clitellar c) Clitellar d) Setigerous sac 52. The body setae of earthworm arises from a of the skin. a) Setigerous sac b) Pre clitellar c) Post clitellar d) Clitellar 53. An earthworm is divided 1st 13th segments region. a) Post clitellar b) Pre clitellar c) Clitellar d) Setigerous sac 54. An earthworm is divided after the 17th segment region. a) Pre clitellar b) Setigerous sac c) Clitellar d) Post clitellar 55. Longest species of Earthworm is an African giant earthworm. a) Microchaetus rapp b) Coelom c) Drawida nilamburansis d) Coelomocytes 56. The lies on the ventral side in the 14th segment. a) Coelomic fluid b) Dorsal pores c) Female genital aperture d) Male genital apertures 57. keeps the body surface moist and free from harmful microorganisms. a) Male genital apertures b) Coelomic fluid c) Female genital aperture d) Dorsal pores 58. A pair of are situated latero-ventrally in the 18th segment. a) Dorsal pores b) Female genital aperture c) Coelomic fluid d) Male genital apertures 59. The common lndian earthworms are: a) Perioynx excavatus b) Lampito mauritii c) Pheretima posthuma d) all of these 60. The communicates to the exterior through the dorsal pores. a) Female genital aperture b) Coelomic fluid c) Dorsal pores d) Male genital apertures 61. The coelomic fluid of the earthworm is. a) Hydrostatic skeleton b) Kalin c) Typhlosole d) Intestine 62. The are known to play a major role in regeneration, immunity and wound healing. a) Coelom b) Drawida nilamburansis c) Microchaetus rappi d) Coelomocytes 63. is a South Indian species of earthworm and can reach a maximum up to 1 meter. a) Microchaetus rappi b) Drawida nilamburansis c) Coelomocytes d) Coelom 64. The coelom contains the coelomic fluid and serves as a. a) Hydrostatic skeleton b) Intestine c) Kalin d) Typhlosole Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

45 11 th Bio-Zoology Organ and Organ Systems in Animals A body cavity called the is seen between the alimentary canal and the body wall. a) Drawida nilamburansis b) Microchaetus rappi c) Coelom d) Coelomocytes 66. In Metaphire posthuma, the 26th segment has a pair of short conical out growths. a) Intestinal caecae b) Vermicasts c) Oxygen d) Respiratory organs 67. are not present in Lampito mauritii (earthworms) a) Intestinal caecae b) Oxygen c) Respiratory organs d) Vermicasts 68. The dorsal wall of the intestine is folded into the cavity as the. a) Kalin b) Hydrostatic skeleton c) Intestine d) Typhlosole 69. starts from the 7th segment and continues till the last segment. a) Hydrostatic skeleton b) Typhlosole c) Intestine d) Kalin 70. Match the following. A) Pharynx - i) 6 th segment B) Oesophagus - ii) 14 th to last segment C) Gizzard - iii) 19 th to last segment D) Intestine - iv) 5 th to 9 th segment E) Pharyngeal nephridia - v) 3 rd to 4 th segment F) Micronephridia - vi) 7 th segment to anus G) Meganephridia - vii) 5 th segment a) A i), B ii), C iii), D iv), E v), F vi), G vii) b) A v), B vii), C i), D vi), E iv), F ii), G iii) c) A i), B iii), C iv), D ii), E vi), F vii), G v) d) A vii), B vi), C v), D iv), E iii), F ii), G i) 71. The locomotory organ of earthworms is: a) appendages b) setae c) tubefeet d) legs 72. prevent the backward flow of the blood. a) Lateral hearts b) Paired valves c) Ventral vessel d) Lampito mauritii 73. The earthworm has no special like lungs or gills. a) Intestinal caecae b) Oxygen c) Respiratory organs d) Vermicasts 74. The undigested particles along with earth are passed out through the anus. a) Intestinal caecae b) Vermicasts c) Oxygen d) Respiratory organs 75. exhibits a closed type of blood vascular system. a) Lampito mauritii b) Paired valves c) Lateral hearts d) Ventral vessel 76. diffuses through the skin into the blood of earthworm. a) Vermicasts b) Intestinal caecae c) Respiratory organs d) Oxygen 77. attached to the lining of the body wall from the14th segment to the last segment. a) Septal nephridia b) Tufted nephridia c) Integumentary nephridia d) Supra - pharyngeal ganglia 78. The colour of the earthworm is mainly due to the presence of the pigment called: a) Haemoglobin b) Haemocyanin c) Porphyrin d) Chlorocruorin 79. The bilobed mass of nervous tissue called. a) Supra - pharyngeal ganglia b) Integumentary nephridia Tufted c) nephridia d) Septal nephridia 80. The has no valves. a) Lampito mauritii b) Lateral hearts c) Ventral vessel d) Paired valves 81. present as paired tufts in the 5th - 9th segments. a) Septal nephridia b) Tufted nephridia c) Integumentary nephridia d) Supra - pharyngeal ganglia 82. The dorsal vessel is connected with the ventral vessel by eight pairs of. a) Ventral vessel b) Paired valves c) Lampito mauritii d) Lateral hearts Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

46 11 th Bio-Zoology Organ and Organ Systems in Animals The sperm develops earlier than the production of ova. a) Chloragogen cells b) Nephrostome c) Monoecious d) Protandrous 84. Special cells on the coelomic wall of the intestine, called are present. a) Monoecious b) Chloragogen cells c) Nephrostome d) Protandrous 85. The meganephridium has an internal funnel like opening called the. a) Nephrostome b) Monoecious c) Chloragogen cells d) Protandrous 86. Earthworms are hermaphrodites or. a) Protandrous b) Chloragogen cells c) Monoecious d) Nephrostome 87. present as pair on both sides of intersegmental septa of the 19th segment. a) Tufted nephridia b) Supra - pharyngeal ganglia c) Integumentary nephridia d) Septal nephridia 88. Earthworms have their most important organ in the first. a) 20 segments b) Oviducts c) Regenerate d) Spermathecae 89. The run upto the 18th segment. a) Spermatogonia b) Prostate gland c) Vasa deferentia d) Ciliary rosettes 90. The testes give rise to the germ cells or. a) Spermatogonia b) Prostate gland c) Vasa deferentia d) Ciliary rosettes 91. The secretion of the serves to cement the spermatozoa. a) Ciliary rosettes b) Spermatogonia c) Vasa deferentia d) Prostate gland 92. Two pairs of seminal funnels called are situated in the same segments as the testes. a) Prostate gland b) Ciliary rosettes c) Vasa deferentia d) Spermatogonia 93. The nutritive fluid is deposited in the produced by the gland cells of the clitellum. a) Peristomium b) Cocoons c) Spermatophores d) Direct 94. A small flap found hanging on the mouth of earthwoim is called: a) Prostomium b) Peristomium c) Clitellum d) Pygidivm 95. are three pairs lying in segments 7th, 8th and 9th, opening. a) 20 segments b) Oviducts c) Regenerate d) Spermathecae 96. If earthworm gets cut after the 20th segment, the anterior half can. a) Cocoons b) Regenerate c) Spermathecae d) Oviducts 97. The prostate gland serves to cement the spermatozoa into bundles. a) Spermatophores b) Cocoons c) Direct d) Oviducts 98. Ovarian funnels are present beneath the ovaries which continue into the. a) Regenerate b) 20 segments c) Oviducts d) Spermathecae 99. Development is and no larva is formed during development. a) Cocoons b) Spermatophores c) 2 3 weeks d) Direct 100. After about, each cocoon produces baby earthworms. a) Spermatophores b) Direct c) 2 3 weeks d) Cocoons LEVEL III ( Questions) 101. The cocoons have an incubation period of about days after they hatch to. a) Juveniles b) Clitellate c) Non-clitellate d) 60 days 102. Fertilization and development occurs within the. a) Direct b) Cocoons c) 2 3 weeks d) Spermatophores 103. The juveniles undergo changes into forms in phase I after about 15 days. a) 60 days b) Non-clitellate c) Clitellate d) Juveniles 104. The process of producing compost using earthworms is called. a) Vermitech b) Vermiwash c) Vermicomposting d) Vermiculture 105. The life cycle of Lampito mauritii takes about to complete. a) Clitellate b) Non-clitellate c) Juveniles d) 60 days Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

47 11 th Bio-Zoology Organ and Organ Systems in Animals Vermiculture, vermicomposting, vermiwash and wormery are collectively. a) Vermitech b) Vermiculture c) Vermiwash d) Vermicomposting 107. The at the end of the growth phase II taking days to complete. a) Juveniles b) 60 days c) Clitellate d) Non-clitellate 108. Cultivation of earthworms for the betterment of human beings. a) Vermiwash b) Vermiculture c) Vermicomposting d) Vermitech 109. exhibits all the fundamental characteristics of Class Insecta. a) Fishing b) Cockroach c) Vectors d) Cursorial 110. is used as a foliar spray and helps to induce plant growth. a) Vermitech b) Vermicomposting c) Vermiculture d) Vermiwash 111. is a liquid manure or plant tonic obtained from earthworm. a) Vermicomposting b) Vermiwash c) Vermitech d) Vermiculture 112. is a typical cosmopolitan insect. a) Cursorial b) Cockroach c) Fishing d) Vectors 113. Earthworms are also used as bait in. a) Fishing b) Vectors c) Cursorial d) Cockroach 114. Exoskeleton has hardened plates called. a) Sclerites b) Tergites c) Pleurites d) Sternites 115. Periplaneta is a animal. a) Fishing b) Vectors c) Cursorial d) Cockroach 116. omnivores, nocturnal, living in damp. a) Cursorial b) Cockroach c) Fishing d) Vectors 117. carry with them harmful germs of various bacterial diseases. a) Cursorial b) Cockroach c) Fishin d) Vectors 118. Periplaneta is a swift runner animal called. a) Cockroach b) Fishing c) Cursorial d) Vectors 119. The muscle fold found in the dorsal wall in the intestine of the earthworm is: a) Diapluagm b) Typhlosole c) Myotome d) Ommatidium 120. is formed by the fusion of six segments and shows great mobility in all directions. a) Hypognathous b) Prothoracic c) Hypopharynx d) Orthopterus 121. The sclerites of lateral sides are called. a) Sternites b) Tergites c) Sclerites d) Pleurites 122. The sclerites of the dorsal side are called. a) Sternites b) Tergites c) Sclerites d) Pleurites 123. The mouth parts are directed downwards so it is. a) Hypognathous b) Hypopharynx c) Orthopterus d) Prothoracic 124. The sclerites on the ventral side are called. a) Tergites b) Sclerites c) Sternites d) Pleurites 125. Due to the presence of three pairs of walking legs it is also called. a) Tarsomeres b) Hexapoda c) Cervicum d) Tegmina 126. The chloracogen cells on the wall of the intestine of the earthworm meant for: a) Digestion b) Cirolation c) Excretion d) Reproduction 127. means tongue. a) Orthopterus b) Hypognathous c) Hypopharynx d) Prothoracic 128. is biting and chewing type. a) Prothoracic b) Orthopterus c) Hypopharynx d) Hypognathous 129. means neck. a) Cervicum b) Tarsomeres c) Hexapoda d) Tegmina Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

48 11 th Bio-Zoology Organ and Organ Systems in Animals The segment is the largest. a) Hypognathous b) Hypopharynx c) Orthopterus d) Prothoracic 131. Each segment is covered by the ventral. a) Metathorax b) Boat c) Sternum d) Tergum 132. are used in flight. a) Metathorax b) Boat c) Sternum d) Tergum 133. The last segment of the leg - tarsus has five movable joints or. a) Cervicum b) Tegmina c) Tarsomeres d) Hexapoda 134. Each segment is covered by the dorsal. a) Sternum b) Tergum c) Metathorax d) Boat 135. protectsthe hind wings when at rest, and is called elytra or a) Hexapoda b) Cervicum c) Tarsomeres d) Tegmina 136. absent in the female. a) Genital pouch b) Anal cerci c) Anal styles d) Gonapophysis 137. In males, the lies at the hind end of the abdomen. a) Genital pouch b) Anal styles c) Gonapophysis d) Anal cerci 138. In females, the 7th sternum is shaped. a) Sternum b) Tergum c) Metathorax d) Boat 139. Male bears a pair of short and slender in the 9th sternum. a) Anal cerci b) Gonapophysis c) Anal styles d) Genital pouch 140. In both the sexes, genital apertures are surrounded by sclerites called. a) Anal styles b) Gonapophysis c) Genital pouch d) Anal cerci 141. The crop is followed by the gizzard or. a) Crop b) Foregut c) Gynovalvular plates d) Proventriculus 142. in 7 th sternum distinguishes the male from the female. a) Gynovalvular plates b) Crop c) Foregut d) Proventriculus 143. is used for storing food. a) Gynovalvular plates b) Proventriculus c) Crop d) Foregut 144. In both sexes, the 10th segment bears a pair of. a) Genital pouch b) Anal styles c) Gonapophysis d) Anal cerci 145. The includes pre-oral cavity, mouth, pharynx and oesophagus. a) Crop b) Foregut c) Gynovalvular plates d) Proventriculus 146. The zoological name of the cockroach is: a) Periplaneta americana b) Lampito mauritti c) Rana hexadactyla d) Metaphire posthurna 147. The is broader than the midgut. a) Malphigian tubules b) Enteric caecae c) Gizzard d) Hindgut 148. The hindgut is marked by the presence of yellow coloured. a) Hindgut b) Enteric caecae c) Malphigian tubules d) Gizzard 149. helps in the grinding of the food particles. a) Gizzard b) Hindgut c) Malphigian tubules d) Enteric caecae 150. are helpful in removal of the excretory products from the haemolymph. a) Gizzard b) Hindgut c) Malphigian tubules d) Enteric caecae LEVEL IV ( Questions) 151. At the junctional region of the gizzard are eight fingers like. a) Hindgut b) Enteric caecae c) Malphigian tubules d) Gizzard 152. carry oxygen to the entire body. a) Trachea b) Salivary glands c) Stigmata d) Tracheoles Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

49 11 th Bio-Zoology Organ and Organ Systems in Animals present on the lateral side of the body. a) Salivary glands b) Tracheoles c) Stigmata d) Trachea 154. A pair of is found on either side of the crop in the thora. a) Salivary glands b) Tracheoles c) Stigmata d) Trachea 155. Branched tubes known as. a) Stigmata b) Trachea c) Salivary glands d) Tracheoles 156. Terminal branches of tracheal tubes are called. a) Stigmata b) Trachea c) Salivary glands d) Tracheoles 157. are phagocytic in nature. a) Haemocytes b) Alary muscles c) 13 chambers d) Pulsatile vesicle 158. Periplaneta has an of circulatory system. a) Spiracular muscles b) Haemolymph c) Open type d) Spiracles 159. The spiracles open and close by valves regulated by. a) Spiracular muscles b) Open type c) Spiracles d) Haemolymph 160. The is colourless. a) Spiracular muscles b) type c) Spiracles Open d) Haemolymph 161. Respiratory system of cockroach is formed of. a) Open type b) Spiracles c) Spiracular muscles d) Haemolymph 162. The respiratory organ ofcockroach is: a) Lungs b) Gills c) Skin d) Trachea 163. The brain is mainly a sensory and an. a) Circum oesophageal b) Endocrine centre c) Sub-oesophageal ganglion d) Supra-oesophagial ganglion 164. The triangular muscles are responsible for blood circulation. a) Pulsatile vesicle b) Chambers c) Alary muscles d) Haemocytes 165. The called the brain. a) Supra-oesophagial ganglion b) Sub-oesophageal ganglion c) Endocrine centre d) Circum oesophageal 166. The heart consists of with ostia on either side. a) 12 chambers b) 13 chambers c) 15 chambers d) 10 chambers 167. An accessory at the base of each antenna which also pumps blood. a) Alary muscles b) Chambers c) Haemocytes d) Pulsatile vesicle 168. The is solid. a) 45 minutes b) week c) Double ventral nerve cord d) Sub-oesophageal ganglion 169. A cockroach can live for a without its head. a) Week b) Double ventral nerve cord c) 45 minutes d) Sub-oesophageal ganglion 170. is the motor centre. a) Endocrine centre b) Supra-oesophagial ganglion c) Sub-oesophageal ganglion d) Circum oesophageal 171. A cockroach can hold its breath for. a) Double ventral nerve cord b) 45 minutes c) week d) Sub-oesophageal ganglion 172. A pair of connectives is present around the oesophagus. a) Supra-oesophagial ganglion b) Sub-oesophageal ganglion c) Endocrine centre d) Circum oesophageal 173. extends up to the 7th abdominal segment. a) Week b) Double ventral nerve cord c) 45 minutes d) Sub-oesophageal ganglion Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

50 11 th Bio-Zoology Organ and Organ Systems in Animals Match the following. A) Gustatory receptors - i) Sense of smell B) Olfactory receptors - ii) Changes in temperature C) Tactile receptors - iii) Detect chemical changes D) Chemoreceptors - iv) Sense of taste E) Thermoreceptors - v) Sense of touch a) A iv), B i), C v), D iii), E ii) b) A i), B ii), C iii), D iv), E v) c) A iv), B ii), C iii), D i), E v) d) A i), B iii), C ii), D v), E iv) 175. The triangular muscles of cockoaches responsible for blood circulation is: a) Sphincter muscles b) Pulsatile vesicle c) Alary muscles d) Smooth muscles 176. The are the main excretory organs of cockroach. a) Mosaic vision b) Ommatidia c) Malpighian tubules d) Uricotelic 177. Each eye of Cockroach is formed of about 2000 simple eyes called the. a) Ommatidia b) Uricotelic c) Malpighian tubules d) Mosaic vision 178. with more sensitivity but less resolution. a) Uricotelic b) Mosaic vision c) Malpighian tubules d) Ommatidia 179. opens into the anterior part of the ejaculatory duct. a) Gonapophyses b) Mushroom shaped gland c) Seminal vesicles d) Malpighian tubules 180. Cockroaches excretes uric acid, so it is: a) Ureotelic b) Uncotelic c) Ammoniotelics d) Elimination 181. are about in number and are present in 6-9 bundles. a) Malpighian tubules b) Mushroom shaped gland c) Gonapophyses d) Seminal vesicles 182. Cockroach excretes uric acid, so it is. a) Malpighian tubules b) Mosaic vision c) Ommatidia d) Uricotelic 183. Marcello Malpighi described as vasa varicose. a) Malpighian tubules b) Seminal vesicles c) Mushroom shaped gland d) Gonapophyses 184. are yellow coloured structures attached midgut and hindgut. a) Malpighian tubules b) Seminal vesicles c) Mushroom shaped gland d) Gonapophyses 185. The egg case of cockroach is called: a) Collateral glands b) spermathecae c) vagina d) Ootheca 186. Common oviduct known as, which opens into the genital chamber. a) Ootheca b) Vagina c) Ovarioles d) Paurometabolus 187. store the sperms in the form of bundles called spermatophores. a) Malpighian tubules b) Gonapophyses c) Seminal vesicles d) Mushroom shaped gland 188. The are present on the ventral surface of the ejaculatory duct. a) Mushroom shaped gland b) Malpighian tubules c) Seminal vesicles d) Gonapophyses 189. Each ovary is formed of a group of eight ovarian tubules or. a) Ovarioles b) Ootheca c) Vagina d) Paurometabolus 190.Asymmetrical structures called phallomeres or which help in copulation. a) Malpighian tubules b) Seminal vesicles c) Mushroom shaped gland d) Gonapophyses Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

51 11 th Bio-Zoology Organ and Organ Systems in Animals The cockroach can cause asthma to sensitive people. a) Super food b) Allergen c) Diploptera punctata d) Moulting 192. The nymph resembles the adult and undergoes. a) Moulting b) Super food c) Diploptera punctata d) Allergen 193.Collaterial glands present behind the ovaries forms a hard egg case called. a) Paurometabolus b) Vagina c) Ootheca d) Ovarioles 194. The nymph grows by or ecdysis about 13 times to reach the adult form. a) Moulting b) Super food c) Diploptera punctata d) Allergen 195. The development of cockroach is gradual through. a) Ootheca b) Vagina c) Ovarioles d) Paurometabolus 196. The zoological name of common Indian green frog is: a) Rana hexadactyla b) Rana tigiris c) Toad d) Caecllian 197. Frog is an. a) Poikilothermic b) Amphibian c) Anura d) Rana hexadactyla 198. Scientists think Cockroach milk could be the of the future. a) Allergen b) Moulting c) Diploptera punctata d) Super food 199. a viviparous cockroach. a) Allergen b) Super food c) Diploptera punctate d) Moulting 200. Common Indian green frog scientific name is. a) Rana hexadactyla b) Poikilothermic c) Anura d) Amphibian LEVEL V ( Questions) 201. produces "milk" to feed their live-born young. a) Moulting b) Allergen c) Diploptera punctate d) Super food 202. The body of a frog is to help in swimming. a) Pale b) Streamlined c) Dark green d) Chordata 203. body temperature varies with the varying environmental temperature. a) Rana hexadactyla b) Anura c) Amphibian d) Poikilothermic 204. The largest order, which includes the frogs and toads. a) Rana hexadactyla b) Poikilothermic c) Anura d) Amphibian 205. Frog belongs to phylum. a) Chordata b) Streamlined c) Pale d) Dark green 206. Rana hexadactyla is placed in the order. a) Amphibian b) Rana hexadactyla c) Anura d) Poikilothermic 207. A pair of forms the ear drum behind the eyes. a) Fore limbs b) Tympanic membranes c) Cloacal aperture d) Nictitating membrane 208. protected by a third transparent eyelid. a) Nictitating membrane b) Tympanic membranes c) Fore limbs d) Cloacal aperture 209. The skin is on the dorsal side. a) Chordata b) Pale c) Dark green d) Streamlined 210. membrane protects the eye when the frog is under water. a) Nictitating membrane b) Cloacal aperture c) Tympanic membranes d) Fore limbs 211. The skin is ventrally. a) Dark green b) Streamlined c) Chordata d) Pale 212. are large, long and consist of thigh, shank and foot. a) Hind limbs b) Nuptial pad c) Vocal sacs d) Muscular sticky tongue Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

52 11 th Bio-Zoology Organ and Organ Systems in Animals are short, stumpy, and helps to bear the weight of the body. a) Cloacal aperture b) Tympanic membranes c) Nictitating membrane d) Fore limbs 214. Between the hind limbs is the. a) Nictitating membrane b) Fore limbs c) Cloacal aperture d) Tympanic membranes 215. helpful for the landing of the frog after leaping. a) Nictitating membrane b) Cloacal aperture c) Tympanic membranes d) Fore limbs 216. common opening for the digestive, excretory and reproductive systems. a) Tympanic membranes b) Nictitating membrane c) Cloacal aperture d) Fore limbs 217. On the floor of the buccal cavity lies a large. a) Hind limbs b) Nuptial pad c) Vocal sacs d) Muscular sticky tongue 218. The male frog has a copulatory or on the ventral side. a) Muscular sticky tongue b) Vocal sacs c) Nuptial pad d) Hind limbs 219. The male frog has a pair of on the ventral side. a) Muscular sticky tongue b) Vocal sacs c) Hind limbs d) Nuptial pad 220. Vocal sacs and are absent in the female frogs. a) Muscular sticky tongue b) Vocal sacs c) Nuptial pad d) Hind limbs 221. assist in amplifying the croaking sound of frog. a) Nuptial pad b) Vocal sacs c) Hind limbs d) Muscular sticky tongue 222. secretes bile which is stored in the gall bladder. a) Liver b) Bilobed c) Chyme d) Hydrochloric acid 223. The is devoid of teeth. a) Vomerine teeth b) Maxillary teeth c) Lower jaw d) Oesophagus 224. A row of small and pointed is found on the inner region of the upper jaw. a) Maxillary teeth b) Vomerine teeth c) Oesophagus d) Lower jaw 225. is a short tube that opens into the stomach. a) Maxillary teeth b) Lower jaw c) Vomerine teeth d) Oesophagus 226. In addition are also present as two groups. a) Maxillary teeth b)vomerine teeth c) Oesophagus d) Lower jaw 227. During the aestivation and hibernation period of frog, gaseous exchange takes place through: a) gills b) nostrils c) skin d) lungs 228. Digested food is absorbed by the numerous finger-like folds. a) Rectum b) Microvilli c) Intestine d) Cloaca 229. Digestion of food takes place by the action of. a) Bilobed b) Liver c) Hydrochloric acid d) Chyme 230. Food is captured by the tongue. a) Liver b) Bilobed c) Chyme d) Hydrochloric acid 231. Final digestion takes place in the. a) Intestine b) Microvilli c) Cloaca d) Rectum 232.Partially digested food called is passed from the stomach. a) Hydrochloric acid b) Bilobed c) Liver d) Chyme 233. The mouth remains permanently closed while the nostrils remain open. a) Diffusion b) Cutaneous respiration c) Buccal respiration d) Pulmonary respiration Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

53 11 th Bio-Zoology Organ and Organ Systems in Animals In water, skin acts as aquatic respiratory organ. a) Cutaneous respiration b) Buccal respiration c) Diffusion d) Pulmonary respiration 235. The undigested solid waste moves into the. a) Intestine b) Cloaca c) Rectum d) Microvilli 236.Dissolved oxygen exchanged through the skin by. a) Buccal respiration b) Diffusion c) Cutaneous respiration d) Pulmonary respiration 237. The undigested solid waste passes out through the. a) Rectum b) Microvilli c) Intestine d) Cloaca 238. is a thick walled on the ventral surface of the heart. a) Pericardium b) Gaseous exchange c) Sinus venosus d) Truncus arteriosus 239. Heart is covered by a double-walled membranecalled. a) Truncus arteriosus b) Pericardium c) Sinus venosus d) Gaseous exchange 240. Respiration by lungs is called. a) Cutaneous respiration b) Buccal respiration c) Diffusion d) Pulmonary respiration 241. is a large, thin walled, on the dorsal side of the heart. a) Truncus arteriosus b) Pericardium c) Sinus venosus d) Gaseous exchange 242. During aestivation and hibernation takes place through skin. a) Gaseous exchange b) Sinus venosus c) Pericardium d) Truncus arteriosus 244. supplies blood to the lungs and skin. a) Blood b) Pulmo-cutaneous trunk c) Carotid d) Systemic trunk 245. The of each side is joined posteriorly to form the dorsal aorta. a) Systemic trunk b) Pulmo-cutaneous trunk c) Blood d) Carotid 246. The trunk supplies blood to the anterior region of the body. a) Blood b) Pulmo-cutaneous trunk c) Carotid d) Systemic trunk 247. supply blood to the posterior part of the body. a) Systemic trunk b) Carotid c) Pulmo-cutaneous trunk d) Blood 248. The olfactory lobes contain a small cavity called. a) Olfactory ventricle b) Optic ventricles c) Cerebellum d) Rhombencephalon 249. is the anterior most and largest part of brain. a) Brain b) Autonomic Nervous System c) Prosencephalon d) Telencephalon 250. control involuntary functions of visceral organs. a) Autonomic Nervous System b) Brain c) Telencephalon d) Prosencephalon LEVEL VI ( Questions) 251. Cerebral hemisphere is called as. a) Prosencephalon b) Brain c)autonomic Nervous System d) Telencephalon 252. is situated in the cranial cavity. a) Telencephalon b) Brain c) Prosencephalon d) Autonomic Nervous System 253. is enclosed in the vertebral column. a) Spinal b) Spinal cord c) Cranial d) Foramen magnum 254. The medulla oblongata passes out through the. a) Foramen magnum b) Cranial c) Spinal cord d) Spinal Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

54 11 th Bio-Zoology Organ and Organ Systems in Animals consists of the cerebellum and medulla oblongata. a) Cerebellum b) Optic ventricles c) Rhombencephalon d) Olfactory ventricle 256. Mesencephalon includes two large, oval optic lobes and has cavities. a) Cerebellum b) Optic ventricles c) Rhombencephalon d) Olfactory ventricle 257. is a narrow, thin transverse band followed by medulla oblongata. a) Optic ventricles b) Olfactory ventricle c) Rhombencephalon d) Cerebellum 258. Frogs are called organisms. a) Urinary bladder b) Mesonephric c) Ureotelic d) Nitrogenous waste 259. Elimination of performed by excretory system. a) Nitrogenous waste b) Urinary bladder c) Ureotelic d) Mesonephric 260. nerves are 10 pairs in frog. a) Foramen magnum b) All of the above c) Cranial d) Spinal cord 261. Kidneys are in frog. a) Nitrogenous waste b) Mesonephric c) Urinary bladder d) Ureotelic 262. nerves are 10 pairs in frog. a) Both a & b b) Spinal cord c) Foramen magnum d) Spinal 263. Larval stage of frog is. a) Testis b) Mesovarium c) Ovisacs d) Tadpole 264.Vasa efferentia arise from each. a) Ovisacs b) Testis c) Mesovarium d) Tadpole 265. A thin walled unpaired is present. a) Nitrogenous waste b) Ureotelic c) Mesonephric d) Urinary bladder 266. store the eggs temporarily. a) Tadpole b) Testis c) Ovisacs d) Mesovarium 267. Reproductive organs of frog on thedorsal body wall of peritoneum called. a) Mesovarium b) Testis c) Tadpole d) Ovisacs 268. A fused mouthpart which forms the floor of the mouth of an insect. a) Articular membrane b) Cochlea c) Clitellum d) Labium 269. A regional epidermal swelling, form the cocoon. a) Homeothermic b) Clitellum c) Cochlea d) Articular membrane 270. The non-sclerotized, flexible membrane between the segments of arthropods. a) Articular membrane b) Clitellum c) Homeothermic d) Cochlea 271. Warm blooded and maintain a constant body temperature. a) Cochlea b) Clitellum c) Articular membrane d) Homeothermic 272. A coiled tube found in the inner ear. a) Articular membrane b) Homeothermic c) Cochlea d) Clitellum NEET BASED QUESTIONS: 273. The body cells in cockroach discharge their nitrogenous waste in the haemolymph mainly in the form of (NEET 2015) a) Calcium carbonate b) Ammonia c) Potassium urate d) Urea 274. Frog's heart when taken out of the body continues to beat for sometime. Select the best option from the following statements. (NEET 2017) (a) Frog is a poikilotherm. (b) Frog does not have any coronary circulation. (c) Heart is "myogenic" in nature. (d) Heart is autoexcitable Options: (1) Only(d) (2) (a) and (b) (3) (c) and(d) (4) Only(c) Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

55 11 th Bio-Zoology Organ and Organ Systems in Animals Picture Based Questions 275. Label the Parts A, B, C,D, E and F in the given diagram. 1. Lampito mauritii Dorsal view 2. Lampito mauritii Digestive system 3. Lampito mauritii Types of Nephridia 4. Lampito mauritii - Reproductive System 5. Periplaneta Americana - External features 6. Periplaneta Americana - Digestive system 7. Periplaneta Americana - Nervous system 8. Periplaneta Americana - Reproductive system Male Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

56 11 th Bio-Zoology Organ and Organ Systems in Animals 9. Periplaneta americana-reproductive system Female 10. Rana hexadactyla - Internal Structure of Heart 11. Rana hexadactyla - Structure of Heart Ventral View 12. Rana hexadactyla Brain dorsal view 13. Rana hexadactyla Brain ventral view 14. Rana hexadactyla -Cavities in the Brain 15. Rana hexadactyla - Male Reproductive System 16. Rana hexadactyla Female Reproductive System Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

57 11 th Bio-Zoology Digestion and Absorption LEVEL I (1-50 Questions) UNIT III CHAPTER - 5 DIGESTION AND ABSORPTION TRY AND TEST YOURSELF 1. Choose the incorrect sentence from the following: a) Bile juice emulsifies the fat. b) Chyme is a digestive acidic foodin stomach. c) Pancreatic juice converts lipid into fatty acid and glycerol. d) Enterokinase stimulates the secretion of pancreatic juice. 2. What is chyme.? a) The process of conversion of fat into small droplets. b) The process of conversion of micelles substances of glycerol into fatty droplet. c) The process of preparation of incompletely digested acidic food through gastric juice. d) The process of preparation of completely digested liquid food in midgut. 3. Which of the following hormones stimulate the production of pancreatic juice and bicarbonate? a) Angiotensin and epinephrine b) Gastrin and insulin c) Cholecysokinin and secretin d) Insulin and glucagon 4. The sphincter of Oddi guards a) Hepatopancreatic duct b) Common bile duct c) Pancreatic duct d) Cystic duct 5. In small intestine, active absorption occurs in case of a) Glucose b) Amino acids c) Na+ d) All the above 6. Which one is incorrectly matched? a) Pepsin stomach b) Renin liver c) Trypsin intestine d) Ptyalin mouth 7. Absorption of glycerol, fatty acids and monoglycerides takes place by a) Lymph vessels within villi b) Walls of stomach c) Colon d) Capillaries within villi 8. First step in digestion of fat is a) Emulsification b) Enzyme action c) Absorption by lacteals d) Storage in adipose tissue 9. Enterokinase takes part in the conversion of a) Pepsinogen into pepsin b) Trypsinogen into trypsin c) Protein into polypetide d) Caseinogen into casein 10. Which of the following is not the function of liver? a) Production of insulin b) Detoxification c) Storage of glycogen d) Production of bile 11. Which of the following combinations are not matched? Column I Column II a) Bilirubin and biliverdin (i) intestinal juice b) Hydrolysis of starch (ii) Amylases c) Digestion of fat (iii) Lipases d) Salivary gland (iv) Parotid Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

58 11 th Bio-Zoology Digestion and Absorption Match column I with column II and choose the correct option Column I Column II (P) Small intestine (i) Largest factory (Q) Pancreas (ii) Absorpstion of glucose (R) Liver (iii) Carrying electrolytic solution (S) Colon (iv) Digestion and absorption a) ( P-iv ) ( Q -iii ) ( R- i ) ( S ii ) b) ( P-iii ) ( Q -ii ) ( R- i ) ( S iv ) c) ( P-iv ) ( Q -iii ) ( R- i ) ( S ii ) d) ( P-ii ) ( Q -iv ) ( R- iii ) ( S i ) 13. Match column I with column II and choose the correct option Column I Column II (P) Small intestine (i) 23 cm (Q) Large intestine (ii) 4 meter (R) Oesophagus (iii) 12.5 cm (S) Pharynx (iv) 1.5 meter a) ( P-iv ) ( Q -ii ) ( R- i ) ( S iii ) b) ( P-ii ) ( Q -iv ) ( R- i ) ( S iii ) c) ( P-i ) ( Q -iii ) ( R- ii ) ( S iv ) d) ( P-iii ) ( Q -i ) ( R- ii ) ( S iv ) 14. Match column I with column II and choose the correct option Column I Column II (P) Lipase (i) Starch (Q) Pepsin (ii) Cassein (R) Renin (iii) Protein (S) Ptyalin (iv) Lipid a) ( P-iv ) ( Q -ii ) ( R- i ) ( S iii ) b) ( P-iii ) ( Q -iv ) ( R- ii ) ( S i ) c) ( P-iv ) ( Q -iii ) ( R- ii ) ( S i ) d) ( P-iii ) ( Q -ii ) ( R- iv ) ( S i ) 15. Assertion : (A) Large intestine also shows the presence of villi like small intestine. Reason: (B) Absorption of water takesplace in large intestine. a) Both A and B are true and B is the correct explanation of A b) Both A and B are true but B is not the correct explanation of A c) A is true but B is false d) A is false but B is true 16. Which of the following is not true regarding intestinal villi? a) They possess microvilli. b) They increase the surface area. c) They are supplied with capillaries and the lacteal vessels. d) They only participate in digestion of fats. 17. The first step in protein digestion starts in a) Stomach b) Oesophagus c) Small intestine d) Salivary gland 18. Chemical break down of proteins is initiated by a) Lipase in the intestine b) Proteases in the small intestine c) Gastric juice in the stomach d) Amylase in saliva 19. Glycogen and starch are broken to disaccharides, then completely hydrolyzed to the simple sugar, glucose in the a) Stomach b) Oesophagus c) Small intestine d) Large intestine 20. Reabsorption of water and sodium ions occurs in the a) Stomach b) Oesophagus c) Small intestine d) Large intestine Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

59 11 th Bio-Zoology Digestion and Absorption Vitamins are small molecules that often function as co-enzymes in metabolic reactions, these are absorbed in the. a) Stomach b) oesophagus c) Small intestine d) Large intestine 22. Absorption of nutrients across the mucosa requires a large surface area. The small intestine is able to accomplish this through a) villi b) Folds in the mucosa c) Microvilli d) Elongation of intestine 23. Absorption of amino acids and sugar is accomplished by a) Active transport b) Facilitated diffusion c) Simple diffusion d) Both a & b 24. Trypsin, chymotrypsin and carboxypeptidase are enzymes that breakdown a) Proteins b) Carbohydrates c) Fats d) Vitamins 25. What is the process of the elimination of the undigested substances? a) Alimentary canal b) Digestion c) Ingestion d) Egestion 26. How does call breakdown of the food into micromolecules? a) Absorption b) Digestion c) Ingestion d) Assimilation 27. What is the name of the process of digestion involves intake of the food? a) Ingestion b) Absorption c) Digestion d) Assimilation 28. What is the process of the absorbed substances becoming components of cells? a) Digestion b) Ingestion c) Absorption d) Assimilation 29. Name the process of absorption of micro molecules into the blood stream. a) Ingestion b) Assimilation c) Absorption d) Digestion 30. Each tooth is embedded in a socket in the jaw bone called: a) thecodont b) diphyolont c) heterodont d) both (b) &(c) 31. What is the technical term of the permanent teeth of four different types? a) Diphyodont b) Thecodont c) Heterodont d) Homodont 32. What is the technical term of tooth embedded in a socket in the jaw bone? a) Thecodont b) Heterodont c) Diphyodont d) Homodont 33. How does the digestive system include? a) Associated digestive glands b) Alimentary canal c) Both of these d) None of these 34. What does mouth lead? a) Buccal cavity b) Oral cavity c) Both of these d) None of these 35. What does form two sets of teeth during their life time? a) Homodont b) Diphyodont c) Heterodont d) Thecodont 36. What is the technical term tomineral salts like calcium and magnesium deposited and form a hard layer on the teeth? a) Calculus b) Tartar c) Both of these d) None of these 37. What is the dental formula in cow? a) 3142/3143 b) 0033/3133 c) 2033/1023 d) 2123/ What is the dental formula in man? a) 0033/3133 b) 2033/1023 c) 3142/3143 d) 2123/ What is the dental formula in rabbit? a) 2033/1023 b) 2123/2123 c) 3142/3143 d) 0033/ What is the dental formula in dog? a) 0033/3133 b) 2033/1023 c) 3142/3143 d) 2123/ What is the name of a cartilaginous flap prevent the entry of food during swallowing? a) Glottis b) Epiglottis c) Both of these d) None of these Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

60 11 th Bio-Zoology Digestion and Absorption Mention the technical term tonarrow gap between the gums and enamel and causes inflammation? a) Calculus b) Tartar c) Plaque d) Gingivitis 43. What does lead to redness and bleeding of the gums and to bad smell? a) Plaque b) Calculus c) Gingivitis d) Tartar 44. What is the technical term to mineral salts like calcium and magnesium deposited and form a hard layer on the teeth? a) Tartar, calculus, plaque b) Both of these c) Efflorescence d) None of these 45. How does with oesophagus open to the pharynx? a) Gizzard b) Buccal cavity c) Wind pipe d) All of these 46. Tartar is the deposited minerals of on the teeth. a) Sodium and Calcium b) Calcium and Magnesium c) Sodium and Potassiurn d) Magnesium and Sodium 47. Name the folds found in the inner wall of stomach which unfolds to accommodate a large meal. a) Roughage b) Gastric rugae c) Both of these d) None of these 48. Name the part of stomach which open to oesophagus. a) Cardiac b) Corpus c) Fundus d) Pyloric 49. What is the opening of trachea? a) Glottis b) Epiglottis c) Both of these d) None of these 50. What is the name of sphincter used to prevent regurgitation of food between stomach and duodenum? a) Sphincter muscle b) Cardiac sphincter c) Pyloric sphincter d) All of these LEVEL II ( Questions) 51. If the cardiac sphincter does not contract properly during the churning action of the stomach the gastric juice with acid may flow back into the oesophagus and cause heart burn, resulting in a) LES b) MALT c) GERD d) COLD 52. What is the name of narrow finger like tubular projections that opens into the colon? a) Haustra b) Crypts of Leiberkuhn c) Vermiform appendix d) Peyer s patches 53. Name Along with villi, the ileal mucosa also contain mucus secreting goblet cells and lymphoid tissue which produce lymphocytes a) Peyer s patches b) Vermiform appendix c) Crypts of Leiberkuhn d) Haustra 54. How does the small intestine assist in the final process of food? a) Absorption b) Digestion c) Both of these d) None of these 55. Which is thewall of the small intestine bears crypts between the base of villi? a) Haustra b) Crypts of Leiberkuhn c) Vermiform appendix d) Peyer s patches 56. Which glands secrete mucus and enzymes in the wall of the duodenum? a) Gastric glands b) Pyloric glands c) Duodenal glands d) Brunner s glands 57. Which is made of smooth circular and longitudinal muscle fibres with a network of nerve cells and parasympathetic nerve fibres which controls peristalsis? a) Submucosa b) Muscularis c) Serosa d) Mucosa 58. What is the name the colon is lined by dilations? a) Peyer s patches b) Vermiform appendix c) Crypts of Leiberkuhn d) Haustra 59. What is called anal column get enlarged? a) Haemorrhoids b) Piles c) Both of these d) None of the above Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

61 11 th Bio-Zoology Digestion and Absorption Which is made up of thin squamous epithelium with some connective tissues? a) Serosa b) Mucosa c) Submucosa d) Muscularis 61. Which is the outermost layer of stomach? a) Serosa b) Muscularis c) Mucosa d) Submucosa 62. What is the daily secretion of saliva from salivary glands? a) 1000 to 1100 ml b) 1000 to 1300 ml c) 1000 to 1500 ml d) 1000 to 1700 ml 63. Which is the duct of salivary gland? a) Wharton s duct b) Stenson s duct c) Bartholin s duct d) All of these 64. Which is formed of loose connective tissue containing nerves, blood, lymph vessels and the sympathetic nerve fibres that control the secretions of intestinal juice? a) Serosa b) Mucosa c) Submucosa d) Muscularis 65. Which is the duct of salivary gland? a) Duct of Rivinis b) Wharton s duct c) Stenson s duct d) All of these 66. What is the layer of parasympathetic nerve fibres which controls peristalsis? a) Mucosa b) Muscularis c) Submucosa d) Serosa 67. Which is an intrinsic factor responsible for the absorption of Vitamin B 12? a) Parietal b) Zymogen c) Castle s d) Oxyntic 68. in the gastric glands secrete gastric enzymes and Goblet cellssecrete mucus a) Zymogen cells b) Peptic cells c) Chief cells d) All of these 69. Which does secrete HCl? a) Peptic cells b) Chief cells c) Zymogen cells d) Parietal cells 70. How is the wall of the stomach lined by gastric glands? a) Chief cells b) Zymogen cells c) Peptic cells d) All of these 71. Which does secrete HCl? a) Zymogen cells b) Peptic cells c) Chief cells d) Oxyntic cells 72. A cartilaginous flap that preverits the entry of food in to the glottis is called a) Buccal cavity b) Gullet c) Epiglottis d) Calculus 73. How much time take to replace the liver cells? a) 3 4 weeks b) 3 4 days c) 2 3 days d) 2 3 weeks 74. Which is the second largest gland in the digestive system? a) Salivary b) Pancreas c) Spleen d) Liver 75. Which is the largest gland in the digestive system? a) Liver b) Pancreas c) Salivary d) Spleen 76. What is the opening of the hepato-pancreatic duct into the duodenum? a) Malphigian s capsule b) Glisson s capsule c) Sphincter of Oddi d) Cystic duct 77. How is hepatic lobe covered by a thin connective tissue sheath? a) Sphincter of Oddi b) Glisson s capsule c) Cystic duct d) Malphigian s capsule 78. Which mechanism of digestion starts in the mouth? a) Chewing b) Grinding c) Mastication d) All of these 79. Which is the function of liver? a) Stores fat soluble vitamins and iron b) Involves in the synthesis of non- essential amino acids and urea c) Detoxifies toxic substances d) All of these 80. Which is antibacterial agent? a) Lysozyme b) Glycoprotein c) Lysosome d) All of these Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

62 11 th Bio-Zoology Digestion and Absorption What is the other name of salivary amylase? a) Enterokinase b)trypsin c) Ptyalin d) Pepsin 82. Which is the function of liver? a) Stores fat soluble vitamins and iron b) Stores glucose in the form of glycogen or disperses glucose c) Destroys aging and defective blood cells d) All of these 83. The inner wall of the stomach has many folds called Which unfold to accomodate a large Meal. a) Yllli b) Sigmoid colono c) Haustra d) Gastic rugae 84. How long food remain in the stomach? a) 2 to 3 hours b) 4 to 5 hours c) 3 to 4 hours d) 5 to 6 hours 85. How does mucus adhering the masticated food? a) Chyme b) Bolus c) Both of these d) None of these 86. How does bolus further pass down through the oesophagus to the stomach by successive waves of muscular contraction? a) Swallowing b) Deglutition c) Peristalsis d) All of these 87. Which is lubricating agent of mucus? a) Lysosome b) Lysozyme c) Glycoprotein d) All of these 88. How do bolus passed into the pharynx and then into the oesophagus? a) Deglutition b) Swallowing c) Both of these d) None of these 89. Mention the range of the mucus along with the bicarbonate ions from the pancreas provides an alkaline medium for the enzymatic action. a) ph 7.0 b) ph c) ph 7.8 d) ph Which is optimum for pepsin, kills bacteria and other harmful organisms and avoids putrifactionin stomach? a) ph 1.8 b) ph 7.8 c) ph d) ph Which is the rhythmic peristaltic movement churns and mixes the food with gastric juice and make it into a creamy liquid? a) Chyme b) Bolus c) Both of these d) None of these 92. What does HCl produce? a) Acidic medium b) Alkaline medium c) Both of these d) None of these 93. Mention the range to make bicarbonates in the saliva? a) ph 1.8 b) ph 5.4 to 7.4 c) ph 7.0 d) ph What is the role of bile? a) Emulsification of fats b) Digestion of lipids c) Both of these d) None of these 95. The mucal layer of ileum has lymphoid tissue known as. a) Peyer's patches b) Crypts of Leiberkuhn c) Zymogen cells d) Haemmorhoids 96. Which is the enzyme acted on trypsinogen? a) Enterokinase b) Succusentericus c) Both of these d) None of these 97. Namethe secretions of the Brunner's gland along with the secretions of the intestinal glands constitute. a) Enterokinase b) Succusentericus c) Both of these d) None of these 98. Which layer generate the movements of the small intestine? a) Submucosa b) Muscularis c) Serosa d) Mucosa 99. Name the bile pigments. a) Bilirubin b) Biliverdin c) Both of these d) None of these 100. What is the activitivy of the gastro-intestinal tract are carried out? a) Hormonal control b) Neural c) Both a and b d) None of these Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

63 11 th Bio-Zoology Digestion and Absorption LEVEL III ( Questions) 101. Which does hydrolyse peptide bonds associated with specific amino acids? a) Chymotrypsinogen b) Chymotrypsin c) Trypsin d) Enterokinase 102. Which is emulsified fat? a) Monoglycerides b) Triglycerides c) Diglycerides d) Glyceraldehyde 103. What does bile salt reduce? a) All of the above b) Digestion of lipids c) Surface tension of fat droplets d) Emulsification of fats 104. Which is the mucus along with the bicarbonate ions from the pancreas provide? a) Acidic medium b) Alkaline medium c) Both of these d) None of these 105. Which is involved in absorption of more amounts of water? a) Duodenum b) Stomach c) Small intestine d) Large intestine 106. The duct of the parotid gland is called: a) wharton's duct b) duct of Rivinis c) Stenson's duct d) Bartholin's duct 107. What is the mechanism of some of the substances like fructose are absorbed with the help of the carrier ions like Na+? a) Active transport b) Simple diffusion c) Facilitated transport d) Diffusion 108. Where does maximum absorption take place? a) Stomach b) Large intestine c) Small intestine d) Duodenum 109. What is the mechanism of small amounts of glucose, amino acids and electrolytes like chloride ions are generally absorbed? a) Facilitated transport b) Simple diffusion c) Diffusion d) Active transport 110. Which spherical water soluble droplets offat soluble vitamins are first incorporated? a) Hyphae b) Micelles c) Mycelium d) All of these 111. How does we get energy? a) 50% energy from carbohydrates b) 15% from proteins c) 35% from fats d) All of the above 112. Name the process of all the body tissues utilize the absorbed substance for their activities and incorporate into their protoplasm. a) Absorption b) Digestion c) Assimilation d) Egestion 113. Find odd one out - Large intestine is involved in absorption of more amounts of. a) Vitamins b) Minerals and certain drugs c) Alcohol and medicines d) Water 114. What is the opening of egestion of faeces? a) Roughage b) Defaecation c) Both of these d) None of these 115. Which is unabsorbed substances in the ileum enter into the large intestine? a) Roughage b) Defaecation c) Both of these d) None of these 116. The opening of the bile duct into the duodenum is guarded by a sphincter called: a) cardrac sphincter b) pybnc sphincter c) anal sphincter d) sphincter of oddi 117. Fat has a caloric value a) 9.1 b) 9.45 c) 5.65 d) Which is required for growth and repair of body cells? a) Vitamin b) Protein c) Lipid d) Carbohydrate 119. Which is major source of cellular fuel? a) Carbohydrate b) Protein c) Vitamin d) Lipid 120. The caloric value of carbohydrate is a) 4.1 b) 5.65 c) 9.1 d) 9.45 Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

64 11 th Bio-Zoology Digestion and Absorption Which is best storage of reserved food? a) Protein b) Carbohydrate c) Lipid d) Vitamin 122. Which is symptom of Marasmus? a) Suffer from diarrhoea b) Due to a diet with inadequate carbohydrate and protein c) An acute form of protein malnutrition d) All of the above 123. The caloric value of protein is a) 9.45 b) 4.1 c) 5.65 d) What is a digestive disorder in which the food is not properly digested leading to a feeling of fullness of stomach? a) Indigestion b) Constipation c) Both of these d) None of these 125. Which is of irregular bowel movement due to poor intake of fibre in the diet and lack of physical activities? a) Indigestion b) Constipation c) Both of these d) None of these 126. What is the name of inflammation of the inner lining of colon? a) Colimyelitis b) Colitis c) Both of these d) None of these 127. Who is known as the Father of gastric physiology. a) Aristotle b) William Beaumont c) Alexis d) A. C Guyton and Hall 128. What can cause any alteration in the composition of the bile? a) Liver cirrhosis b) Jaundice c) Vomiting d) Gall stones 129. Which is defective liver fail to break down haemoglobin? a) Gall stones b) Jaundice c) Liver cirrhosis d) Vomiting 130. What is feeling of nausea? a) Vomiting b) Biting c) Chewing d) Swallowing 131. Which is reverse peristalsis? a) Vomiting b) Gall stones c) Liver cirrhosis d) Jaundice 132. Which is chronic disease of liver results in degeneration and destruction of liver cells? a) Vomiting b) Gall stones c) Liver cirrhosis d) Jaundice 133. Which is caused due to the storage of excess of body fat in adipose tissue? a) Hiatus hernia b) Appendicitis c) Peptic ulcer d) Obesity 134. What is a structural abnormalityin which superior part of the stomach? a) Peptic ulcer b) Diarrhoea c) Hiatus hernia d) Appendicitis 135. What is the inflammation of the vermiform appendix? a) Diarrhoea b) Appendicitis c) Hiatus hernia d) Peptic ulcer 136. Which does refer to an eroded area of the tissue lining in the stomach or duodenum? a) Peptic ulcer b) Diarrhoea c) Hiatus hernia d) Appendicitis 137. Which is the most common gastrointestinal disorder worldwide? a) Peptic ulcer b) Hiatus hernia c) Appendicitis d) Diarrhoea 138. Name the folds in wall of stomach. a) Gastric rugae b) Glisson s capsule c) Haustra d) Goblet cell 139. What is the name of duct of sublingual gland? a) Ampulla of vater b) Bartholin s duct c) Falciform ligament d) Crypts of leiberkuhn 140. Which does seperate lobes of liver connect the liver with diaphragm a) Bartholin s duct b) Ampulla of vater c) Crypts of leiberkuhn d) Falciform ligament 141. What is the common duct called hepato-pancreatic duct? a) Ampulla of vater b) Crypts of leiberkuhn c) Bartholin s duct d) Falciformligament Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

65 11 th Bio-Zoology Digestion and Absorption Name the crypts between the base of villi in the wall of the small intestine? a) Bartholin s duct b) Ampulla of vater c) Crypts of leiberkuhn d) Falciform ligament 143. Masticated food particles passed into pharynx and then into the oesophagus by the process called a) deglutition b) dentition c) mastication d) pfirifactio 144. Which sphincter which guard the opening of the ampulla of vater into the duodenum? a) Succusentericus b) Sphincter of oddi c) Stenson s duct d) Sphincter of boydon 145. Name the pouch like dilation in the colon. a) Goblet cell b) Glisson s capsule c) Gastric rugae d) Haustra 146. Name the thin connective tissue sheath which covers the hepatic lobules. a) Goblet cell b) Glisson s capsule c) Gastric rugae d) Haustra 147. Which is mucus secreting glands? a) Haustra b) Glisson s capsule c) Goblet cell d) Gastric rugae 148. Name the sphincter which guard opening of the bile duct before it joins with the pancreatic duct. a) Sphincter of boydon b) Stenson s duct c) Sphincter of oddi d) Succusentericus 149. Which is duct of sub-maxillary/sub-mandibular gland? a) Succusentericus b) Valves of kerkring c) Wharton s duct d) Taeniae coli 150. Which is intestinal juice? a) Stenson s duct b) Sphincter of oddi c) Sphincter of boydon d) Succusentericus LEVEL IV ( Questions) 151. Which is longitudinal muscular chords in the colon? a) Taeniae coli b) Succusentericus c) Wharton s duct d) Valves of kerkring 152. Which is circular folds in the lumen of ileum? a) Wharton s duct b) Valves of kerkring c) Taeniae coli d) Succusentericus 153. Name the duct of parotid gland) a) Succusentericus b) Sphincter of oddi c) Stenson s duct d) Sphincter of boydon 154. The functional unit of liver is a) Goblet cells b) Hepatic lobules c) micelles d) gastic glands NEET BASED QUESTIONS: 155. How pepsin is differing from trypsin? (DPMT 1993) a) It digests protein in acidic medium b) It digests protein in alkaline medium c) It digests carbohydrate in acidic medium d) It digests carbohydrate in alkaline medium 156. Human intestine large because.. (DPMT 1996) a) Bacteria in the food moves slowly b) Substances of food digest slowly c) It provide more space for the absorption of digested food. d) It provide more space for the storage of food 157. How the epidermal cells in the stomach of vertebrate animal is protect stomach against HCl? (NCERT -1981) a) HCl is dilute b) Epidermal cells defense the function of HCl c) HCL is neutralized in stomach d) Epidermal cells covered with secretion of mucous 158. Enterokinase takes part in the conversion of what? (BHU-2000) a) Pepsinogen into pepsin b) Trypsinogen into trypsin c) Protein into polypetide d) Caseinogen into casein Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

66 11 th Bio-Zoology Digestion and Absorption By what the major part of mammalian teeth is made up? (CPMT 1984) a) Root b) Pulp c) Dentin d) Enamel 160. Secretin stimulates production of (M.P.PM.T. 2002) a) Saliva b) Gastric juice c) Bile d) Pancreatic juice 161. Pepsin acts in (H.P.P.M.T.-2001) a) Basic medium b) Acidic meduim c) Neutral meduim d) All type of medium 162. Enzyme trypsin is secreted by (A.F.M.C ) a) Duodenum b) Liver c) Pancreas d) Stomach 163. The number of teeth that grow twice in the human life is (A.F.M.C ,2004) a) 4 b) 12 c) 20 d) The number of teeth that grow once in the human life is (D.P.M.T, B.H.U ) a) 4 b) 12 c) 20 d) Cholesterol is synthesised in (M.P.P.M.T. 2000) a) Brunner s glands b) Liver c) Spleen d) Pancreas 166. Largest gland in human body is ( J.K. C.M.E.E- 2003) a) Liver b) Pancreas c) Pituitary d) Thyroid 167. Muscular contraction of alimentary canal are ( C.M.C- 2003) a) Circulation b) Deglutition c) Churning d) Peristalsis 168. Fatty acids and glycerol are first absorbed by (B.V ) a) Lymph vessels b) Villi c) Blood capillaries d) Hepatic portal vein 169. Trypsin changes (M.P.P.M.T. 1995) a) Proteins into peptones b) Fats into fatty acids c) Starch and glycogen into maltose d) Maltose into its components 170. Secretin hormone is produced by (M.P.P.M.T. 1995) a) Stomach b) Liver c) Intestine d) Pancreas 171. Narrow distal part of stomach is (M.P.P.M.T. 1995) a) Cardiac b) Pharynx c) Duodenum d) Pylorus 172. ph suitable for ptyalin actions is (A. F.M.C) -1996) a) 6 8 b) 7 8 c) 3 2 d) What will happen if bile duct gets choked? (D.P.M.T. 1996) a) Faeces become dry b) Acidic chyme will not be neutralized c) There will be little digestion in intestine d) Little absorption of fat will occur 174. Digestion of both starch and protein is carried out by (A.F.M.C ) a) Gastric juice b) Gastric lipase c) Pancreatic juice d) Ptyalin 175. What is common among amylase, renin and trypsin? (C.P. M.T ) a) All proteins b) Proteolytic enzymes c) Produced in stomach d) Act at ph lower then Enterokinase is (B.H.U ) a) Pancreatic hormone b) Intestine hormone c) Pancreatic enzyme d) Component of Intestinal juice 177. Which enzyme initiates protein digestion? (M.P.P.M.T ) a) Pepsin b) Trypsin c) Aminopeptidase d) Carboxypeptidase 178. Pepsin is secreted by (CPMT-1997) a) Peptic cells b) Zymogen cells of stomach c) Zymogen cells of duodenum d) Pancreas 179. Pepsinogen is activated by a) Chymotrypsin b) Trypsin c) HCl d) Pepsin 180. Contraction of gall bladder is induced by a) Gastrin b) Cholecystokinin c) Secretin d) Enterogastrone Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

67 11 th Bio-Zoology Digestion and Absorption Hormone that stimulates stomach to secrete gastric juice is a) Renin b) Enterokinase c) Enterogastrone d) Gastrin 182. Water is largely absorbed in (C.P.M.T ) a) Stomach b) Oesophagus c) Small intestine d) Colon 183. HCl is secreted by (D.P.M.T ) a) Zymogen cells b) Kupffer s cells c) Oxyntic cells d) Mucous cells 184. Jaundice is a disease of (A.P. M.E.E ) a) Kidney b) Liver c) Pancreas d) Duodenum 185. Which is different? (B.H.U ) a) Gastrin b) Secretin c) Ptyalin d) Glucagon 186. Gastrin is (B.H.U ) a) Hormone b) Enzyme c) Nutrient d) Digestive secretion 187. Saliva contains enzyme (C. P. M.T ) a) Enterokinase b) Ptyalin/ Amylase c) Chymotrypsin d) Lipase 188. In human being cellulose is digested by a) Enzyme b) Symbiotic bacteria c) Symbiotic protozoans d) None of these 189. Enzyme lactase occurs in (M.P.P.M.T ) a) Saliva b) Pancreatic juice c) Intestinal juice d) Stomach 190. Protein / enzyme is absent in (M.P.P.M.T ) a) Saliva b) Bile c) Pancreatic juice d) Intestinal juice 191. Dental formula shows (M.P.P.M.T ) a) Structure of teeth b) Monophyodont or diphyodont condition c) Number and type of teeth in both jaws d) Number and type of teeth in one half of both jaws 192. ph of gastric juice / stomach is a) b) c) d) In case of taking food rich in lime juice, the action of ptylin on starch is (A.I.I.M.S ) a) Enhanced b) Reduced c) Unaffected d) Stopped 194. Bile salts take part in (A.M.U ) a) Digestion of carbohydrates b) Brokedown of proteins c) Emulsification of fat d) Absorption of glycerol 195. Digestive juice contains catalytic agents called (P.M.T ) a) Vitamins b) Hormones c) Enzymes d) Nitrates 196. Which is not the function of liver (D.P.M.T ) a) Production of insulin b) Detoxification c) Storage of glycogen d) Production of bile 197. Fat absorbed from gut is transported in blooda. a) Micelles b) Liposomes c) Chemomicrons d) Chlymicrons 198. In small intestine, active absorption occurs in case of (A.M.U ) a) Glucose b) Amino acids c) Na + d) All the above 199. Which one is not matched (Har.P.M.T ) a) Pepsin stomach b) Renin liver c) Trypsin intestine d) Ptyalin mouth 200. What is cholecystokinin a) Bile pigment b) Gastro-intestinal hormone c) Enzyme d) Lipid Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

68 11 th Bio-Zoology Digestion and Absorption LEVEL V ( Questions) 201. Secretion of gastric juice is controlled by (C.P.M.T ) a) Enterogesterone b) Cholecystokinin c) Gastrin d) Pepsin 202. Which one is wisdom teeth (C.P.M.T ) a) Third molar, four in number b) Third molar, two in number c) Second molar, four in number d) Second molar, two in number 203. In humans, digestion is (B.H.U ) a) Intercellular b) Intracellular c) Extracellular d) Both A and B 204. Gall bladder takes part in (R.P.M.T ) a) Secretion of bile b) Storage of bile c) Formation of bile salts d) Formation of enzymes 205. Rennin acts on milk protein and changes (J.I.P.M.E.R ) a) Caesinogen into caesin b) Caesin into paracaesin c) Caesinogen into paracaesin d) Paracaes in into Caesinogen 206. Glucose is stored in liver as (A.F.M.C ) a) Starch b) Glycogen c) Cellulose d) Sucrose 207. Absorption of glycerol, fatty acids and monoglycerides takes place by a) Lymph vessels within villi b) Walls of stomach c) Colon d) Capillaries within villi 208. Which ones are bile salts? a) Haemoglobin and biliverdine b) Bilirubin and biliverdine c) Bilirubin and Haemoglobin d) Sodium glycolate and taurocholate 209. Ptyalin is inactivated by a component of gastric juice called (Har.P.M.T ) a) Pepsin b) HCl c) Rennin d) Mucus 210. Epithelial cells involved in absorption of digested food have on their free surface. (A.I.E.E.E.-2003) a) Zymogen granules b) Pinocytic vesicles c) Phagocytic vesicles d) Microvilli 211. First step in digestion of fat is (B.H.U ) a) Emulsification b) Enzyme action c) Absorption by lacteals d) Storage in adipose tissue 212. DNA-ase and RNA-ase are enzymes produced by (B.H.U ) a) Salivary glands b) Pancreas c) Stomach d) Intestine 213. Carboxypeptidase is secreted by a) Pancreas b) Stomach c) Salivary glands d) Intestine 214. Secretin and Cholecystokinin are digestive hormone, They are secreted in a) Pyloric stomach b) Duodenum c) Ileum d) Oesophagus 215. Crown of teeth is covered by (AFMC-2005) a) Dentin b) Enamel c) A and B both d) Non of these 216. Both the crown and root of a theeth is covered by a layer of bony hard sub stance called (J&K CET-2005) a) Enamel b) Dentin c) Bony socket d) Cementum 217. Lysozymes are found in (MPPMT-2004) a) Saliva b) Tears c) A and B both d) Mitochondria 218. Which of the following is not present in pancreatic juice (HPPMT-2005) a) Trypsinogen b) Chymotrypsin c) Parasitic d) lipase 219. In the stomach, gastric acid is secreted by the (AIPMT / NEET 2016) a) Gastrin secreting cells b) parietal cells c) peptic cells d) acidic cells 220. The enzymes that is not present is succus entericus is (RE-AIPMTNEET 2015) a) Lipase b) maltase c) nucleases d) nucleosidase Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

69 11 th Bio-Zoology Digestion and Absorption Which of the following statement is not correct? (NEET 2015) a) Bruner s glands are present in the submucosa of stomach and secrete pepsinogen b) Goblet cells are present in the mucosa of intestine and secrete mucus. c) Oxyntic cells are present in the mucosa of stomach and secrete Hcl. d) Acini are present in the pancreas and secrete carboxypeptidse Which hormones stimulate the production of pancreatic juice and bicarnates? (NEET 2016) a) Cholycystokinin and secretin b) Insulin and glucogon c) Angiotensin and epinephrine d) Gastrin and Insuline 223. Which of the following are not polymerase? (NEET 2017) a) proteins b) Polysaccharides c) Lipids d) Nucleic acids 224. A baby aged two years is admitted to play school and passes through a dental check-up. The dentist observed that the boy had twenty teeth. Which teeth were absent. (NEET 2017) a) Canines b) Pre- Molars c) Molars d) Incisors Which cells of Crypts of Lieberkuhn secrete antibacterial lysozyme? (NEET 2017) a) paneth cells b) Zymase cells c) Kupffer cells d) Argentaffin cells 226. The hepatic portal veins drains blood to liver from (NEET 2017) a) Stomach b) Kidneys c) Intestine d) Heart 227. Which of the following options best represents the enzyme composition of pancreatic juice? (NEET 2017) a) Amylase, pepsin, trypsinogen, maltase b) Peptidase, Amylase, pepsine, renine c) Lipase, amylase, trypsinogen, procarboxypeptidase d) Amylase, peptidase, trypsinogen, rennin Good vision depends on adequate intake of carotene rich food. Select the best option from the following statements. (NEET 2017) A) Vitamin A derivatives are formed from carotene. B) The photo pigments are embedded in the membrane discs of the inner segments. C) Retinal is a derivative of vitamin A D) Retinal is light absorbing part of all the visual photopigments. OPTIONS a) A, C and D b) A and C c) B, C and D d) A and B Picture Based Questions II. Label the Parts A, B, C,D, E and F in the given diagram Large intestine 230. Hiatus hernia Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

70 11 th Bio-Zoology Respiration LEVEL I (1-50 Questions) UNIT III CHAPTER - 6 RESPIRATION TRY AND TEST YOURSELF 1. Breathing is controlled by a) cerebrum b) medulla oblongata c) cerebellum d) pons 2. Intercostal muscles are found between the a) vertebral column b) sternum c) ribs d) glottis 3. The respiratory structures of insects are a) tracheal tubes b) gills c) green glands d) lungs 4. Asthma is caused due to a) bleeding in pleural cavity. b) infection of nose c) damage of diaphragm. d) infection of lungs 5. The Oxygen Dissociation Curve is a) sigmoid b) straight line c) curved d) rectangular hyperbola 6. The Tidal Volume of a normal person is a) 800 Ml b)1200 ml c) 500 ml d) Ml 7. During inspiration, the diaphragm a) expands b) unchanged c) relaxes to become domed shaped. d) contracts and flattens 8. CO 2 is transported through blood to lungs as a) carbonic acid b) oxyhaemoglobin c) carbamino haemoglobin d) carboxy haemoglobin 9. When 1500 ml air is in the lungs, it is called a) vital capacity b) tidal volume c) residual volume d) inspiratory reserve volume 10. Vital capacity is a) TV + IRV b) TV + ERV c) RV + ERV d) TV + IRV + ERV 11. After a long deep breath, we do not respire for some seconds due to a) more CO2 in the blood b) more O2 in the blood c) less CO2 in the blood d) less O2 in the blood 12. Which of the following substances in tobacco smoke damage the gas exchange system? a) carbon monoxide and carcinogens b) carbon monoxide and nicotine c) carcinogens and tar d) nicotine and tar 13. Which of the following shows pulmonary respiration a) Sponge b) Crab c) Coelentrate d) Human 14. Column I represents diseases and column II represents their symptoms. Choose the correctly paired option Column I Column II P) Asthma i) Recurring of bronchitis Q) Emphysema ii) Accumulation of W.B.CS in alveolus R) Pneumonia iii) Allergy a) P = iii, Q = ii, R = I b) P = iii, Q = i, R = ii c) P = ii, Q = iii, R = I d) P = ii, Q = i, R = iii Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

71 11 th Bio-Zoology Respiration Which of the following best describes the process of gas exchange in the lungs? a) Air moves in and out of the alveoli during breathing. b) Carbon dioxide diffuses from deoxygenated blood in capillaries into the alveolar air. c) Oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse down their concentration gradients between blood and alveolar air. d) Oxygen diffuses from alveolar air into deoxygenated blood. 16. Make the correct pairs. Column I Column II P) IC i) maximum volume of air breathe in after forced. Q) EC ii) Volume of air present after expiration in lungs. R) VC iii) Volume of air inhaled after expiration. S) FRC iv) Volume of air exhaled after inspiration. a) P i, Q ii, R iii, S iv b) P ii, Q iii, R iv, S i c) P ii, Q iii, R i, S iv d) P iii, Q iv, R i, S ii 17. Make the correct pairs. Columan I Column II P) Tidal volume i) 1000 to 1100 ml Q) Residual volume ii) 500 ml R) Expiratory reserve volume iii) 2500 to 3000 ml S) Inspiratory reserve volume iv) 1100 to 1200 ml a) P ii, Q iv, R i, S iii b) P iii, Q ii, R iv, S i c) P ii, Q iv, R iii, S I d) P iii, Q iv, R i, S ii 18. During exhalation, the diaphragm moves a) Apart b) Downwards c) Upwards d) Inwards 19. H 2 CO3 is coverted into CO2 and H2O with the help of a) Carboxylase b) Carbonic dehydrogenase c) Carbocylic anhydrase d) Carbonic anhydrase 20. The neural centre which excites inspiration and expiration during rapid breathing is a) Optic lobe b) Meninges c) Pneumotoxic center d) Pineal body 21. What is the role of buffer systems in blood? a) To maintain ph of blood plasma b) To provide acidic medium c) To increase salt concentration d) To decrease salt concentration 22. Hamburger s phenomenon is also known as. a) HCO3 - shift b) Na + shift c) Ca + shift d) Chloride shift 23. Air enters into the respiratory system in the following sequence a) Trachea lung larynx pharynx alveoli b) Nose larynx pharynx alveoli bronchioles c) Nostrils pharynx larynx trachea bronchi bronchioles alveoli d) Nose alveoli bronchioles trachea 24. Trachea is surrounded by C shaped incomplete rings of. a) Fibrous cartilage b) Calcified cartilage c) Elastic cartilage d) Hyaline cartilage 25. O2 Dissociation curve shifts to the right when. a) O2 concentration decreases b) CO2 concentration decreases c) CO 2 concentration increases d) Chloride concentration increases 26. Vital capacity of lung is equal to a) IRV+ERV+TV b) IRV+ERV+TV-RV c) IRV+ERV+TV+RV d) IRV+ERV Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

72 11 th Bio-Zoology Respiration Exchange of gases in the alveoli of the lungs occurs through a) Active transport b) Osmosis c) Simple diffusion d) Passive transport 28. Vocal cords are located within the a) Pharynx b) Larynx c) Glottis d) Bronchial tube 29. Which of the following statement is incorrect? a) Presence of non respiratory air sacs increases efficiency of respiration in birds b) In insects, circulation of body fluids serve to distribute oxygen to tissues c) Principle of counter current flow facilitates efficient respiration in gills of fishes d) Residual air in lungs slightly decreases the efficiency of respiration in mammals 30. Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct options. Column I Column II P) Expiratory capacity i) VC + RV Q) Inspiratory capacity ii) TV+ERV R) Vital capacity iii) TV+IRV S) Total lung capacity iv) TV+IRV+ERV a) P i, Q ii, R iii, S iv b) P ii, Q iii, R iv, S i c) P ii, Q iv, R i, S iv d) P iii, Q vi, R ii, S i 31. Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct options. Column I Column II a) Silicosis i) Destruction and enlargement of air spaces b) Emphysema ii) Occupational lung disease that causes lung fibrosis c) Asthma iii) Bronchial tube inflammation d) Bronchitis iv) Narrowing of airway a) a ii, b i, c iv, d iii b) a iii, b ii, c i, d iv c) a iv, b i, c iii, d ii d) a i, b ii, c iv, d - ii 32. Which method of exchange of gases takes place in sponges, coelenterates and flatworms? a) Passive transport b) Simple diffusion c) Diffusion d) Active transport 33. How is respiration found in insects? a) Moist skin b) Tracheal tubes c) Vascularized lungs d) Gills 34. Which is the primary function of the respiratory system? a) To maintain the vocal cords for normal communication (vocalization) b)to remove the heat produced during cellular respiration through breathing c) Both of these d) None of these 35. Which is the primary function of the respiratory system? a) To protect us from inhaled pathogens and pollutants b)to maintain homeostatic regulation of body ph c) To exchange O2 and CO2 between the atmosphere and the blood d) All of the above 36. The world TB day is a) March24 b) April 23rd c) October l2th d) March12th 37. How is respiration found in earthworm? a) Moist skin b) Gills c) Tracheal tubes d)vascularized lungs 38. The parts starting from the alveoli and the ducts constitute the. a) Conducting zone b) Respiratory zone c) Both of these d) None of these 39. How is respiration found in fishes? a) Tracheal tubes b) Moist skin c) Gills d)vascularized lungs Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

73 11 th Bio-Zoology Respiration How is respiration found in arthropods and molluscs? a) Moist skin b) Vascularized lungs c) Gills d) Tracheal tubes 41. The parts starting from the external nostrils up to the terminal bronchioles constitute the a) Conducting zone b) Respiratory zone c) Both of these d) None of these 42. When our brain sense ths shortage of 0 2, it send a message to CNS to imbalance to 02 demand and trigger us to a) Snore b) Hiccups c) Sneeze d)yawn 43. How is respiration found in amphibians,reptiles,birds and mammals? a) Gills b) Tracheal tubes c) Moist skin d)vascularized lungs 44. How is the diffusion membrane of alveolus is made up of? a) The basement substance b) The endothelium of the alveolar capillaries c) The thin squamous epithelial cells of the alveoli d) All of the above 45. Where does trachea divide into right and left primary bronchi, one bronchus to each lung? a) 4 th thoracic vertebra b) 5 th thoracic vertebra c) Mediastinum d) All of these 46. is used to measure the volume of air involved in breathing movement for clinical assessment. a) Sphygmomanometer b) Clinical thermometer c) Spirometer d) Haemocytometer 47. Which is contain in mucus membrane lining the airway? a) Goblet cells b) Epithelial cells c) Glycoprotein d) All of these 48. Which is meant for gaseous exchange? a) Trachea b) Pleura c) Lungs d) Alveoli 49. Which slimy material rich in mucus membrane lining the airway? a) Epithelial cells b) Glycoprotein c) Goblet cells d) All of these 50. Percenatage of oxygen being carried by blood plasma is a) 6-9% b) 3-6% c) 2-3% d) 1-2% LEVEL II ( Questions) 51. What is role of surfactant? a) It also prevents pulmonary oedema b) Prevents the lungs from collapsing c) Lowers the surface tension in the alveoli d) All of these 52. Which substance secrete through Type II cells in alveoli? a) Type I cells b) Type II cells c) Surfactant d) All of these 53. Which type of alveolithat gases can diffuse rapidly through them? a) Type I cells b) Type II cells c) Surfactant d) All of these 54. What is the characteristic feature of respiratory surface? a) Should be in direct contact with the environment b) Should be permeable to respiratory gases c) Both of these d) None of these 55. Tuberculosis is Caused by a) vibrio cholera b) Heticobacter pylori c) Mycoibacterium tuberculae d) Mycoplasma 56. What type of pressure occur while increasing pressure in lungs during inspiration? a) Interpulmonary pressure b) Intrapulmonary pressure c) Both of these d) None of these Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

74 11 th Bio-Zoology Respiration What is the characteristic feature of respiratory surface? a) Richly supplied with blood vessels b) Surface area must be very large c) Should be extremely thin and kept moist d) All of the above 58. What is the technical termto expulsion of air from the lungs? a) Inspiration b) Expiration c) Both of these d) None of these 59. The synthesis of surfactants begins only after the of gestation. a) 20 th week b) 25 th week c) 35 th week d) 30 th week 60. Which is the condition of Premature Babies have low levels of surfactant in the alveoli may develop? a) Newborn Respiratory Distress Syndrome (NRDS) b) Nasal Continuous Positive Airway Pressure (NCPAP) c) Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS) d) All of these 61. What is the technical termto enter the air passages into the lungs? a) Inspiration b) Expiration c) Both of these d) None of these 62. Additional volume of air a person can inspire by forceful inspiration is called. a) Residual Volume b) Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV) c) Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV) d) (RV) Tidal Volume (TV) 63. Whichis the amount of air inspired or expired with each normal breath? a) Tidal Volume (TV) b) Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV) c) Residual Volume (RV) d) Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV) 64. What is the breathing rate of healthy human? a) times/minute b)10 16 times/minute c) times/minute d) times/minute 65. Which is the character of tidal volume? a) During vigorous exercise, is about 4 10 times higher b) Can inspire or expire approximately 6000 to 8000ml c) It is approximately 500 ml d) All of the above 66. Breakdown of thin wall of the alveoli will leads to a) Emphysema b) Asthma c) pneumonia d) Bronchitis 67. What is the instrument used to measure the volume of air? a) Stethoscope b) Spirometer c) Sphygmomanometer d) Thermometer 68. Which is thetotal volume of air a person can exhale after normal inspiration? a) Total Lung Capacity (TLC) b) Inspiratory capacity (IC) c) Expiratory capacity (EC) d) Vital capacity (VC) 69. Which is the maximum volume of air that can be moved out during a single breath? a) Vital capacity (VC) b) Inspiratory capacity (IC) c) Total Lung Capacity (TLC) d) Expiratory capacity (EC) 70. Additional volume of air a person can forcefully exhale by forceful expiration is called. a) Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV) b)tidal Volume (TV) c) Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV) d) Residual Volume (RV) 71. Which isthe volume of air remaining in the lungs after a forceful expiration? a) Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV) b) Tidal Volume (TV) c) Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV) d) Residual Volume (RV) 72. Which is the total volume of air a person can inhale after normal expiration a) Total Lung Capacity b) Inspiratory capacity (IC) c) Expiratory capacity (EC) d) (TLC) Vital capacity (VC) Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

75 11 th Bio-Zoology Respiration What is the molecular weight of Haemoglobin? a) dalton b) dalton c) dalton d) dalton 74. Which is the inspired air never reaches the gas exchange areas? a) Minute Respiratory Volume b) Inspiratory capacity c) Expiratory capacity d) Dead space 75. Which is the total volume of air which the lungs can accommodate after forced inspiration? a) Expiratory capacity (EC) b) Inspiratory capacity (IC) c) Vital capacity (VC) d) Total Lung Capacity (TLC) 76. What is the amount of dead space? a) 200ml b) 150ml c) 100ml d) 250ml 77. Which is the amount of air that moves into the respiratory passage per minute? a) Minute Respiratory Volume b) Expiratory capacity c) Inspiratory capacity d) Dead space 78. Where does RBCs move quickly? a) Liver b) Plasma c) Haemoglobin d) Cell 79. Which is carried in the RBCs as carbaminohaemoglobin? a) Dissolved in plasma b) Bound to haemoglobin c) Both of these d) None of these 80. Which is obtained when percentage saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen plotted against po 2? a) Oxygen Haemoglobin Association Curve b) Oxygen Haemoglobin Dissociation Curve c) Both of these d) None of these 81. Name the enzymerbcs contain a high concentration. a) Carbon monoxide b) Carbon dioxide c) Carbonic anhydras d) Carbonic amylase 82. Which is transported in a dissolved form in the plasma? a) Dissolved in plasma b) Bound to haemoglobin c) Both of these d) None of these 83. The partial pressure of, O2 in the oxygenated blood is a)104 mm Hg b) 95 mm Hg c) 159 mm Hg d) 45 mm Hg 84. Which does common in scuba divers? a) Nitrogen narcosis b) Haemoglobin c) Oxyhaemoglobin d) All of these 85. Which is the symptom of acute mountain sickness (AMS)? a) Shortness of breath b) Headache c) Nausea and dizziness d) All of the above 86. Where is present pneumotaxic centre in the brain? a) Cerebrum b) Medulla oblongata c) Pons varoli d) Cerebellum 87. The increase in blood nitrogen content can lead to a condition called. a) Nitrogen narcosis b) Oxyhaemoglobin c) Haemoglobin d) All of these 88. Which does stimulate the bone marrow to produce more RBCs? a) Erythrocyte b) Thrombocyte c) Erythropoietin d) Leucocyte 89. Which is called widening of alveoli? a) Tuberculosis b) Emphysema c) Pneumonia d) Asthma 90. How does allergy produce? a) Pollutants b) Allergens c) Carcinogens d) All of these 91. What does lead while oxygen level decreasing in the blood? a) Vomiting b) Emaciation c) Giddiness d) Suffocation 92. Which is characterized by narrowing and inflammation of bronchi? a) Asthma b) Pneumonia c) Emphysema d) Tuberculosis 93. Which is the chemical that causes addiction? a) Cardio vascular system b) about 80% of the lung cancer c) Nicotine d) All of these Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

76 11 th Bio-Zoology Respiration What is the effect of suffocation on the skin? a) Turns bluish b) Turns white c) Turns yellowish d) Turns reddish 95. What is happen due to cigarette smoking? a) about 80% of the lung cancer b) Nicotine c) Cardio vascular system d) All of these 96. Minute respiratory volume for a normal healthy man is: a) l2 liters/minute b) 150 ml/minute c) 5 liters/minute d) 6 liter/minute 97. Which is the inflammation of the lungs due to infection caused by bacteria? a) Emphysema b) Asthma c) Pneumonia d) Tuberculosis 98. Which is damaged by carbon monoxide and nicotine? a) All of the above b) Cardio vascular system c) Nicotine d) about 80% of the lung cancer 99.Which does infection mainly occur in the lungs and bones? a) Emphysema b) Asthma c) Pneumonia d) Tuberculosis 100. The tracheal tube of human is supported by a) Bones b) Cartilaginous rings c) Tracheal filaments d) Epiglottis LEVEL IIII ( Questions) 101. Which is Chronic Obstructive Lung Disease? a) Apnoea b) Book lungs c) Book gills d) COLD 102. Which does temporary stopping of respiration? a) Apnoea b) COLD c) Book lungs d) Book gills 103. Which is the character of Nicotine? a) Raised blood pressure and coronary heart diseases b) It is a stimulant which makes the heart beat faster c) It is the chemical that causes addiction d) All of the above 104. Which is the respiratory organs of Scorpions and most spiders? a) Apnoea b) COLD c) Book lungs d) Book gills 105. Mention respiratory organs in aquatic Limulus. a) COLD b) Book gills c) Book lungs d) Apnoea 106. An average,a healthy human breathes times/minute a) b) c) d) Which is the failure of tissues for any reason to receive an adequate supply of oxygen? a) Hypoxia b) Yawning c) Vocal cords d) Pneumothorax 108. Which is iron containing red pigment of RBCs of vertebrates, gives red colour to blood? a) Epiglottis b) Dyspnoea c) Haemoglobin d) Herring-Breuer reflex 109. Which is painful respiration? a) Dyspnoea b) Haemoglobin c) Epiglottis d) Herring-Breuer reflex 110. Name the thin elastic cartilaginous flap which covers the glottis & prevents the entry of food into larynx a) Herring-Breuer reflex b) Epiglottis c) Haemoglobin d) Dyspnoea 111. Which is a defensive mechanism against over dilation of lungs? a) Haemoglobin b) Epiglottis c) Dyspnoea d) Herring-Breuer reflex 112. During vigorous exercise, the tidal volume of eabh respiration is about this much times higher a) 6 times b) times c) 4-10times d) more than 5 times 113. Which is prolonged inspiration due to increase in CO2 concentration? a) Vocal cords b) Pneumothorax c) Hypoxia d) Yawning 114. Which is the presence of air in the pleural cavity which causes collapsing of lungs? a) Hypoxia b) Pneumothorax c) Yawning d) Vocal cords Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

77 11 th Bio-Zoology Respiration Which is sound regulating cords also called larynx or voice box? a) Pneumothorax b) Hypoxia c) Vocal cords d) Yawning NEET BASED QUESTIONS: 116. The length of human trachea is about (Gujarat C.E.T.Q.B.) a) 6 inches b) 12 c. c) 12 inches d) 18 cm 117. Hamburger s phenomenon is also known as (CPMT.1988,1991,AMU.2001,J.LPME.R.2002) a) HCO 3 shift b) Na + shift c) H + shift d) Chloride shift 118. Oxygen carrying capacity of blood is (CPMT.1990) a) 20% b) 30% c) 40% d) 50% 119. Respiratory movements are controlled by (A.P.M.E.E.1978, C.P.M.T.1998) a) Cerebelluam b) Cerebrum c) Medulla oblongata d) Crura cerebri 120. At higher CO 2 condtcentration, oxygen dissociation curve of haemoglobin will (CPMT.1990) a) Move to left b) Move to right c) Become irregular d) Move upwardly 121. Chloride shift is required for transport of (CPMT.1990) a) Nitrogen b) Oxygen c) Carbon dioxide d) Carbon dixide and oxygen 122. Volume of air inspired or expired with each normal breath is known (CMPT.1992,AMU.2000) a) Inspiratory capacity b) Tidal volume c) Total Lung capacity d) Residual volume 123. Oxygen haemoglobin dissociation curve will shift to right on decrease of (AMU.1992) a) Acidity b) CO2 concentration c) Temperature d) ph 124. Is Double membrane pleural sac is situated (J.K.C.M.E.E.1992) a) Envelops the kidneys b) Envelops the brain c) Envelops the lungs d) Lines the nasal passage 125. Volume of air remaining in lungs after maximum respiratory effort is (J.K.C.M.E.E.1992,Har.PMT.2003) a) Vital capacity b) Residual volume c) Total lung capacity d) Tidal volume 126. In expiration, diaphragm becomes (C.P.M.T.1993) a) Flattened b) Relaxed c) Straightened d) Arched 127. Carbon dioxide is transported from tissues to respiratory surface by only a) Plasma and erythrocytcs b) Plasma c) Erythrocytes d) Erythrocytes and leucocytes 128. Respiratory centre is situated in (CPMT.1980,2002, B.H.U.1995,M.P.P.M.T.1998,R. PMT.2006) a) Cerebellum b) Medulla oblongata c) Hypothalamus d) Cerebrum 129. Air is breathed through (A.P.M.E.E.1 999) a) Trachea lung larynx pharynx alveoli b) Nose larynx pharynx alveoli bronchioles c) Nostrils pharynx larynx trachea bronchi bronchioles alveoli d) Nose mouth lungs Which is false? a) Blood from right side of heart is carried to lungs by pulmonary artery b) Pleura is double covering of kindey c) Pancreas is both exocrine & endocrine gland d) Scurvy is due to vitamin C deficiency During transport of CO2 blood does not become acidic due to a) Neutralisation of H2CO3 by Na2CO3 b) Absorption by leucocytes c) Blood buffers d) Non accumulation 132. Body tissue obtain oxygen from haemoglobin due to its dissociation in tissues is caused by (M.P.PMT.1995) a) Low oxygen concentration and high carbon dioxide concentration b) Low oxygen concentration c) Low carbon dioxide concentration d) High carbon dioxide concentration. Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

78 11 th Bio-Zoology Respiration Volume of air breathed in and out during effortless respiration is a) residual volume b) vital volume c) Tidal volume d) normal volume 134. Lungs have a number of alveoli for (M.P.PMT.1995) a) Having spongy texture and proper shape b) More surface area for diffusion of gases c) More space for increasing volume of inspired air d) More nerve supply 135. Presence of large number of alveoli around alveolar ducts opening into bronchioles in mammalian lungs is a) Inefficient system of ventilation with little of residual air b) Inefficient system of ventilation with high percentage of residual air c) An efficient system of ventilation with no residual air d) An efficient system of ventilation with little residual air At high altitude, RBCs of human blood will (PMT.1999,J.LPM.E.R.2000) a) Increase in number b) Decrease in number c) Decrease in size d) Increase in size 137. CO 2 is transported a) dissolved in blood plasma b) As carbonic acid c) In carbamino haemoglobin d) As carbaminolaemoglobin and carbonic acid 138. Maximum amount 70-75% of carbon dioxide transport occursa. (R.P.M.T.1996,1998,M.P.PMT.1998, C.P.M.T.1998,B.V.2002) a) Dissolved in plasma b) Carbaminohaemoglobin complex c) Bicarbonate d) None of these 139. Trachea is lined with incomplete rings of (D.P.M.T.1996) a) Fibrous cartilage b) Calcified cartilage c) Elastic cartilage d) Hyaline cartilage 140. Oxygen and carbon dioxide are transported in blood through a) Platelets and corpuscles b) RBCs and WBCs c) WBCs and serum d) RBCs and plasma 141. About 1500 ml of air left in lungs is called a) Tidal volume b) Inspiratory reserve volume c) Residual volume d) Vital capacity 142. Which one protects the lungs? (B.H.U.1990) a) Ribs b) Vertebral column c) Sternum d) All the above 143. Which one has the lowest value? a) Tidal volume b) Vital capacity c) Inspiratory reserve volume d) Expiratory reserve volume 144. A child was killed through asphyxiation. Post morturm confirmed it because a piece of lung put in water (M.P.PMT.1996) a) Settled dowm b) Kept floating c) Had blood spots d) None of these 145. Amount of oxygen present in one gram of haemoglobin is (A.I.I.M.S.1997,Har.PMT,2000) a) 20 ml b) 1-34 ml c) 13-4 ml d) None of these 146. A molecule of haemoglobin carries how many oxygen molecules (M.P.P.M.T.1997,C.F.M.T.2002,J. CM.E.E.2004) a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) In carbon monoxide poisoning there is (A.F.M.C 1997) a) Increase in carbon dioxide concentration b) Decrease in oxygen availability c) Decrease in free haemoglobin d) None of these 148. Exchange of gases in lung alveoli occurs through (A.FMC.2002) a) Active transport b) Osmosis c) Simple diffusion d) Passive transport 149. Haemoglobin is a) Vitamin b) Skin pigment c) Blood carrier d) Respiratoy pigment Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

79 11 th Bio-Zoology Respiration Vocal cords occur in a) Pharynx b) Larynx c) Glottis d) Bronchial tube LEVEL IV ( Questions) 151. The cells which do not respire (A.FMC.2001) a) Epidermal cells b) Sieve cells c) Cortical cells d) Erythocytes 152. Hiccough (hiccup) is due to activity of a) Intercostal muscles b) Food in air tract c) Diaphragm d) Inadequate oxygen in environment 153. Bicarbonate formed inside erythrocytes moves out to plasma while chloride of plasma pass into erythrocytes. The phenomenon is called a) Bicarbonate shift b) Carbonation c) Hamburger phenomenon d) None of these 154. Respiratory centre of brain is stimulated by (A.I.I.M.S 2000) a) Carbon dioxide content in venous blood b) Carbon dioxide content in arterial blood c) Oxygen content in venous blood d) Oxygen content in arterial blood 155. A higher CO 2 concentration of blood causes (AM U.2001) a) Slow diffusion of CO 2 from blood b) Slow transport of CO2 from blood c) Slow diffusion of O2 from blood d) Both a and b 156. Gases diffuse over the respiratory surface because of a) O 2 is more in alveoli than in blood b) O2 is more in blood than in tissues c) CO 2 is more in alveoli than in blood d) PCO2 is more in blood than in tissues 157. Dissociation curve of O 2 (which is dissociation from Hb) shifts to the rights. a) O 2 concentration decrease b) CO2 concentration decreases c) CO2 concentration increase d) Chloride concentration increases 158. Thoracic cage of man is formed of (M.P.P.M.T.2002) a) Ribs and sternum b) Ribs, sternum and thoracic vertebrae c) Ribs,sternum and lumbar vertebrae d) Ribs and thoracic vertebrae Vital capacity of lung is equal to a) IRV+ERV+TV b) IRV+ERV+TV-RV c) IRV+ERV+TV+RV d) IRV+ERV 160. Dead space is a) Upper respiratory tract b) Nasal chambers c) Alveolar space d) Lower respiratory tract Carbon monoxide contained in Tobacco smoke (A.I.E.E.E.2003) a) Is carcinogenic b) Causes gastric ulcers c) Reduces oxygen carrying capacity of blood d) Raises blood pressure 162. Increase in CO2 concentration shall cause a) Slower and shallower breathing b) Slower and deeper breathing c) Faster and deeper breathing d) No effect on breathing 163. What is correct? a) Pulomonary ventilation is equal to alveolar ventilation b) Alveolar ventilation is less than pulmonary ventilation c) Alveolar ventilation is more than pulmonary ventilation d) Both are variable 164. Alveoli become enlarged and damaged with reduced surface area in heavy smokers. the condition is called a) Silicosis b) Emphysema c) Asthma d) Bronchitis 165. SARS is caused by a variant of (A.I.I.M.S 2004) a) Pneumococcus pneumonia b) Common cold by Corona virus c) Asthma d) Bronchitis Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book

80 11 th Bio-Zoology Respiration Mountain sickness at high altitude is due to (C.P.M.T.2005) a) Excess CO 2 in blood b) Decreased CO2 in air c) Decreased partial pressure of oxygen d) Decreased efficiency of haemoglobin 167. During inspiration (J.I.PME.R.2004,R.PMT.2005) a) Diaphragm and external muscles relax b) Diaphragm and internal intercostal muscles relax c) Diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contract d) Diaphragm and internal intercostal muscles contract Capacity of human lungs for air in a healthy person is a) 3000 ml b) 1500 ml c) 1000 ml d) 500 ml 169. Rate of breathing is controlled by a) Amount of freely avilable oxygen b) Carbon dioxide in blood c) Muscular functions of body d) All the above 170. During strenous exercise,glucose is converted into (B.H.U.2005) a) Glycogen b) Pyravic acid c) Starch d) Lactic acid 171. How much pulmonary air is expired normally (Har.P.M.T.2005) a) 70% b) 20% c) 25% d) 32% 172. Which is incorrect? a) Presence of nonrespiratory air sacs increases efficinency of respiration in birds b) In insects, circulation body fluids serve to distribute oxygen to tissues c) Principle of counter current flow facilitates efficient respiration in gills of fishes d) Residual air in lungs slightly decreases the efficiency of respiration in mammals 173. Name of the pulmonary disease in which alveolar surface area involved in gas exchange is drastically reduced due to damage in the alveolar walls: (RE-NEET 2015) a) Astthma b) Pleurisy c) Emphysema d) Pneumonia 174. Asthma may be attributed to (AIPMT/NEET-2016) a) bacterial infection of the lungs b) allergic reaction of the mast cells in the lungs c) inflammation of the trachea d) accumulation of fluid in the lungs 175. Name the chronic respiratory disorder caused mainly by cigarette smoking: (RE-NEET 2016) a) Emphysema b) Asthma c) Respiratory acidosis d) Respiratory alkalosis 176. Lungs are made up of air-filled sacs, the alveoli. They do not collapse even after forceful expiration. (NEET 2017) a) Inspiratory Reserve Volume b) Tidal Volume c) Expriatory Reserve Volume d) Residual Volume Picture Based Question 177. Label the Parts A, B, C,D, E and F in the given diagram. 1. Structure of alveoli Self-test the above questions. For answers you can purchase our 1 mark book