Intravenous Infusions 1) An IV insulin infusion can be used for patients: a) with out of control diabetes b) with DKA (Diabetic Ketoacidosis) c) after a heart attack 2) Hyperglycemia is an adaptive response essential for survival. 3) Diltiazem is used to treat: a) rapid ventricular rate in atrial fibrillation b) rapid ventricular rate in atrial flutter c) a & b d) Wolff-Parkinson White (WPW) syndrome 4) An IV Dopamine infusion is compatible with : a) insulin b) heparin c) norepinephrine d) all other IV infusions 5) Heparin infusions are used to prevent the formation of blood clots but cannot decrease the size of those that have already formed. 6) Medication errors cause over 7000 deaths in the US each year. 7) The onset of action of Regular Insulin is: a) between 0.5 and one hour b) between 2 and 3 hours c) between five and ten minutes d) between one and two hours 8) Milrinone is indicated for patients with: b) hypertension c) atrial fibrillation d) acute decompensated heart failure 9) An IV Nicardipine infusion is typically initiated at: a) 1.0 mg/hr b) 2.75 mg/hr c) 5.0 mg/hr d) 10 mg/hr
10) The primary side effect of heparin is: b) hypoglycemia c) thrombocytopenia d) hemorrhage 11) The lab value used to measure patients coagulation when receiving a Heparin IV infusion is the protime (PT/INR.) 12) Cardiac irregularities are a common side effect of Phenylephrine. 13) The primary action of Nitroglycerin is the relaxation of vascular smooth muscle causing dilation of blood vessels. 14) Side effects of Dobutamine include: a) increased heart rate b) increased blood pressure c) decreased heart rate d) a & b 15) Indications for a Dopamine IV infusion include: b) hypertension c) low cardiac output d) a & c 16) Shock is sometimes differentiated as warm or cold. 17) Epinephrine is the first choice of medications for patients with symptomatic bradycardia and hypotension. 18) Lidocaine is a(n): a) vasodilator b) antiarrhythmic c) inotrope d) vasopressor
19) Procainamide should not be given to patients with: a) complete heart block b) ventricular tachycardia c) hypertension d) hypoglycemia 20) Before starting any vasopressor infusion, blood volume depletion should be corrected as fully as possible. 21) Norepinephrine is compatible with: a) insulin b) isoproterenol c) heparin d) nitroglycerine 22) Vasodilators can be used to treat: a) hypertension b) heart failure c) angina 23) Esmolol is a(n): a) anti-coagulant b) vasodilator c) vasopressor d) inotrope 24) Milrinone can be used for extended periods of time. 25) There four classes of anti-arrhythmic medications. 26) A medication that must be stored in a glass or hard plastic container is: a) insulin b) heparin c) phenylephrine d) nitroglycerin 27) Cyanide toxicity is the most common adverse effect of: a) nitroprusside b) milrinone c) heparin d) epinephrine
28) The typical dose range of Epinephrine is: a) 1-2 mcg/min b) 2-10 mcg/min c) 10-15 mcg/min d) 15-20 mcg/min 29) In case of extravasation, the medication to be injected at the site is Phentolamine. 30) Insulin resistance is only found in about 30% of critically ill patients. 31) Heparin is a(n): a) vasopressor b) inotrope c) anti-coagulant d) vasodilator 32) Typical infusion rates of Isoproterenol are: a) 0.5 to 5 mcg/min b) 5 to 10mcg/min c).1 to 0.5 mcg/min d) 10 to 15 mcg/min 33) Norepinephrine is a(n): a) vasopressor b) vasodilator c) anti-coagulant d) anti-arrhythmic 34) All of the following are anti-arrhythmic medications except:: a) amiodarone b) diltiazem c) lidocaine d) phenylephrine 35) Regular insulin is the only type of insulin that should be given intravenously. 36) The typical dose of phentolamine is 1 to 3 mg.
37) All of the following are vasodilators except: a) esmolol b) dobutamine c) milrinone d) nicardipine 38) Side effects of esmolol include: b) dizziness c) tachycardia d) a & b 39) Insulin is compatible with: a) esmolol b) heparin c) procainamide 40) A typical infusion rate of heparin is: a) 100-500 u/hr b) 500-2000 u/hr c) 1000-5000 u/hr d) 5000-7000 u/hr 41) The most common side effect of Nitroglycerin is: a) headache b) tachycardia c) nausea d) bradycardia 42) Nitroglycerin is indicated for the immediate reduction of blood pressure in patients in hypertensive crisis. 43) Nitroprusside can be used in the treatment of acute congestive heart failure (CHF). 44) All of the following are vasopressors or inotropes except: a) dopamine b) norepinephrine c) epinephrine d) dobutamine
45) One of the better diagnostic signs by which adequacy of vital organ perfusion can be monitored is: a) heart rate b) urine flow c) blood pressure d) oxygen saturation 46) Physiologic responses to shock include: a) lactic acidosis b) catecholamine release c) vasodilation 47) The most common side effect of Diltiazem is: b) hypertension c) confusion d) tachycardia 48) Onset of action of IV Lidocaine is: a) 3 to 5 seconds b) 45 to 90 seconds c) 3 to 5 minutes d) 5 to 10 minutes 49) A Procainamide infusion should be stopped if the patient develops persistent conduction disturbances or hypotension. 50) The peak action of Regular Insulin is one to three hours.