Injuries to the Head and Spine From Bradys Emergency Care 10 th Edition 1. When performing the four-rescuer log roll, which responder pulls the board into position? A.) Head B.) Waist C.) Knee D.) Shoulder 2. Which fall should it be assumed there is some sort of spinal injury? A.) 1/2 times the patient's height B.) 2 times the patient's height C.) 3 times the patient's height D.) 1 times the patient's height 3. Where must the uppermost holes of the shortboard be located on the patient to afford the most support? A.) Level with shoulders B.) Level with elbows C.) Level with waist D.) Level with crown on head 4. What is the second step taken when performing rapid extrication from a child safety seat? A.) Perform long axis move B.) Place seat in center of board C.) Stabilize carseat upright D.) Apply cervical collar 5. Where should the responders hold the patient's arm to keep him secure when performing the rapid takedown of a standing patient? A.) Just above the elbow B.) Just above the wrist C.) Just below the wrist D.) Just below the elbow
6. What should be done to control bleeding with a scalp injury? A.) Apply direct pressure B.) Elevate the head C.) Use pressure points D.) Lower the head 7. Which responder calls for the move whenever a move is done involving neck stabilization? A.) One holding the head B.) One holding the trunk C.) One holding the buttocks D.) One holding the feet 8. What should be done when pulling off a cycling helmet? A.) Twist to remove any suction inside B.) Pull out on the sides to clear the ears C.) Tilt forward to clear the occipital area D.) Tilt back to clear the chin 9. Which is more susceptible to injury? A.) Thoracic spine B.) Coccyx spine C.) Lumbar spine D.) Sacral spine 10. What kind of shock is the result of the failure of the nervous system to control the diameter of the blood vessels? A.) Hypovolemic B.) Neurogenic C.) Hemorrhagic D.) Cardiogenic 11. Which is considered a bruise to the brain? A.) Hematoma B.) Laceration C.) Concussion D.) Contusion
12. Which is NOT used to assess a responsive patient? A.) Inspect for contusions and lacerations B.) Ascertain from bystanders what happened C.) Ascertain the mechanism of injury D.) Palpate for deformity and tenderness 13. What is the sequence that should be followed during all applications of an immobilizing board? A.) Head then neck B.) Head then torso C.) Neck then head D.) Torso then head 14. What should be strapped second when performing spinal immobilization of a suspine patient? A.) Head B.) Legs C.) Torso D.) Arms 15. When performing a rapid extrication procedure how much is the patient turned when first being removed from the vehicle? A.) Quarter turn B.) Eighth turn C.) Third turn D.) Half turn 16. What is secured last when a patient is put onto a long spine board? A.) Feet B.) Legs C.) Head D.) Torso 17. When should the helmet be removed? A.) Removal may cause further injury B.) There are no impending airway problems C.) Spinal immobilization can be done D.) Helmet allows movement of the head inside
18. Which is a major sign of a brain injury? A.) Battle's sign B.) Blurred vision C.) Personality change D.) One eye appears sunken 19. How many EMT-B's are needed to perform the rapid takedown? A.) 2 B.) 1 C.) 3 D.) 4 20. Which type of injury is often seen in diving accidents? A.) Lumbar B.) Coccyx C.) Cervical D.) Thoracic 21. What should be done with a long object that is impaled into a patient's skull? A.) Shorten it B.) Remove it C.) Stabilize in place D.) Bend it 22. What is the first thing applied when performing the rapid takedown of a standing patient? A.) Head padding B.) Long spine board C.) Cervical collar D.) Manual stabilization 23. What is used to secure the pelvic area to a child seat when using it to immobilize a child? A.) Towel along the head B.) Towel on the arms C.) Towel on the lap D.) Towel over the chest
24. What part of the patient's body should initially be placed toward the door of the vehicle when performing the rapid extrication? A.) Back B.) Left arm C.) Stomach D.) Right arm 25. Which location is NOT strapped when performing a rapid extrication from a child safety seat? A.) Pelvis B.) Chest C.) Abdomen D.) Lower legs 26. What has been implemented to take the guess work out of when to immobilize a patient? A.) Sensory and motor detection for immobilization B.) Always perform spine immobilization protocol C.) Paramedic spine immobilization reality D.) Selective spine immobilization protocol 27. How many cervical vertebrae are in the neck? A.) 7 B.) 5 C.) 12 D.) 4 28. Where is the head held when removing a helmet? A.) Hand under the chin and on the side of the head B.) Hand in front of the chin and behind the head C.) Hand in front of the chin and behind the neck D.) Hand under the chin and on top of the head 29. Which type of hematoma is located outside of the dura in the brain? A.) Epidural B.) Subdural C.) Intracerebral D.) Extracerebral
30. How many irregularly shaped bones are in the face? A.) 10 B.) 18 C.) 22 D.) 14 31. When the spine board is titled down, what will the patient be suspended by when performing the rapid takedown of a standing patient? A.) Waist B.) Armpits C.) Shoulders D.) Head 32. Which is the most reliable sign of spinal cord injury? A.) Pain without movement B.) Paralysis of the extremities C.) Pain with movement D.) Tenderness anywhere along the spine 33. When a football player has on pads and a helmet, which combination of removal is correct? A.) Facemask and pads B.) Helmet and pads C.) Helmet only D.) Pads only 34. What is it called when the bruising of the brain is on the side of the blow? A.) Contracoup B.) Hema C.) Contrahema D.) Coup
35. Which of the following must be true for a skull injury to be considered open? A.) Skin intact B.) Skin broken C.) Cranium fractured D.) Cranium intact 36. What should be done after administering high-concentration oxygen to the skull fracture patient? A.) Transport immediately B.) Control bleeding C.) Provide manual stabilization D.) Dress open wounds 37. How often should the brain injury patient s vital signs be taken? A.) 5 minutes B.) 3 minutes C.) 7 minutes D.) 9 minutes 38. What does the average adult skull weigh? A.) 9 pounds B.) 11 pounds C.) 17 pounds D.) 14 pounds 39. When needing to transport an immobilized patient in an upright position, which straps need to be tight? A.) Head B.) Torso C.) Waist D.) Thighs 40. What is the primary concern with facial fractures? A.) Pressure B.) Circulation C.) Airway D.) Bleeding
41. Which should have the sensory and motor functions assessed when treating a patient with a spinal injury? A.) Extremities on opposite side of injury B.) All four extremities C.) Extremities on same side as injury D.) Extremities opposite of each other 42. Which location is NOT always a place that straps are available for securing the patient to the long spine board? A.) Thighs B.) Criss-cross shoulders and chest C.) Pelvis D.) Upper chest 43. What is the bony structure making up the forehead and skull? A.) Maxillae B.) Orbits C.) Cranium D.) Mandible 44. Which order is taping done when immobilizing a child in a safety seat? A.) Chest, forehead, chest, collar B.) Pelvis, chest, forehead, collar C.) Forehead, collar, chest, pelvis D.) Collar, pelvis, chest, forehead 45. What should be applied first when performing spinal immobilization of a seated patient? A.) Extrication collar B.) Body straps across torso C.) Padding for the head D.) Immobilization device
46. Which part of the patient's body is the immobilization device attached to first when performing spinal immobilization on the seated patient? A.) Legs B.) Torso C.) Neck D.) Head 47. Which is NOT generally used to diagnose spinal injury? A.) Impaired breathing B.) Posturing C.) Deformity D.) Loss of bowel control 48. Which location should NOT be taped down when performing a rapid extrication from a child safety seat? A.) Cervical collar B.) Chin C.) Pelvis D.) Forehead