Practice Quiz 1 AP Bio Sept 2016 Name MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) The element present in all organic molecules is A) hydrogen. B) oxygen. C) carbon. D) nitrogen. E) phosphorus. 2) How many electron pairs does carbon share in order to complete its valence shell? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 8 3) Which of the following is not a monomer/polymer pairing? A) monosaccharide/polysaccharide B) amino acid/protein C) triglyceride/phospholipid bilayer D) deoxyribonucleotide/dna E) ribonucleotide/rna 4) Which of the following is not a polymer? A) glucose B) starch C) cellulose D) chitin E) DNA 5) Which of the following is an example of hydrolysis? A) the reaction of two monosaccharides, forming a disaccharide with the release of water B) the synthesis of two amino acids, forming a peptide with the release of water C) the reaction of a fat, forming glycerol and fatty acids with the release of water D) the reaction of a fat, forming glycerol and fatty acids with the consumption of water E) the synthesis of a nucleotide from a phosphate, a pentose sugar, and a nitrogenous base with the production of a molecule of water 1
6) Humans can digest starch but not cellulose because A) the monomer of starch is glucose, whereas the monomer of cellulose is galactose. B) humans have enzymes that can hydrolyze the glycosidic linkages of starch but not the glycosidic linkages of cellulose. C) humans have enzymes that can hydrolyze the glycosidic linkages of starch but not the glycosidic linkages of cellulose. D) humans harbor starch-digesting bacteria in the digestive tract. E) the monomer of starch is glucose, whereas the monomer of cellulose is glucose with a nitrogen-containing group. 7) Dehydration reactions are used in forming which of the following compounds? A) triacylglycerides B) polysaccharides C) proteins D) triacylglycerides and proteins only E) triacylglycerides, polysaccharides, and proteins 8) Which of the following is true of cellulose? A) It is a polymer composed of enantiomers of glucose. B) It is a storage polysaccharide for energy in plant cells. C) It is digestible by bacteria in the human gut. D) It is a major structural component of plant cell walls. E) It is a polymer composed of enantiomers of glucose, it is a storage polysaccharide for energy in plant cells, it is digestible by bacteria in the human gut, and it is a major structural component of plant cell walls. 9) Which of the following classes of biological molecules consist of both small molecules and macromolecular polymers? A) lipids B) carbohydrates C) proteins D) nucleic acids E) Lipids, carbohydrates, proteins, and nucleic acids all consist of only macromolecular polymers. 10) On food packages, to what does the term insoluble fiber refer? A) cellulose B) polypeptides C) starch D) amylopectin E) chitin 2
11) Which of the following statements concerning saturated fats is not true? A) They are more common in animals than in plants. B) They have multiple double bonds in the carbon chains of their fatty acids. C) They generally solidify at room temperature. D) They contain more hydrogen than unsaturated fats having the same number of carbon atoms. E) They are one of several factors that contribute to atherosclerosis. 12) Which of the following statements is true for the class of biological molecules known as lipids? A) They are insoluble in water. B) They are made from glycerol, fatty acids, and phosphate. C) They contain less energy than proteins and carbohydrates. D) They are made by dehydration reactions. E) They contain nitrogen. 13) Which of the following is true regarding saturated fatty acids? A) They are the predominant fatty acid in corn oil. B) They have double bonds between the carbon atoms of the fatty acids. C) They are the principal molecules in lard and butter. D) They are usually liquid at room temperature. E) They are usually produced by plants. 14) Why are human sex hormones considered to be lipids? A) They are essential components of cell membranes. B) They are not soluble in water. C) They are made of fatty acids. D) They are hydrophilic compounds. E) They contribute to atherosclerosis. 15) There are 20 different amino acids. What makes one amino acid different from another? A) different side chains (R groups) attached to a carboxyl carbon B) different side chains (R groups) attached to the amino groups C) different side chains (R groups) attached to an carbon D) different structural and optical isomers E) different asymmetric carbons 16) Which bonds are created during the formation of the primary structure of a protein? A) peptide bonds B) hydrogen bonds C) disulfide bonds D) phosphodiester bonds E) peptide bonds, hydrogen bonds, and disulfide bonds 3
17) Which type of interaction stabilizes the helix and the pleated sheet structures of proteins? A) hydrophobic interactions B) disulfide bonds C) ionic bonds D) hydrogen bonds E) peptide bonds 18) Changing a single amino acid in a protein consisting of 325 amino acids would A) alter the primary structure of the protein but not its tertiary structure or function. B) cause the tertiary structure of the protein to unfold. C) always alter the biological activity or function of the protein. D) always alter the primary structure of the protein and disrupt its biological activity. E) always alter the primary structure of the protein, sometimes alter the tertiary structure of the protein, and sometimes affect its biological activity. 19) In a normal cellular protein, where would you expect to find a hydrophobic amino acid such as valine? A) in the interior of the folded protein, away from water B) on the exterior surface of the protein, interacting with water C) in the transmembrane portion interacting with lipid fatty acid chains D) in the interior of the folded protein, away from water, or in a transmembrane portion interacting with lipid fatty acid chains E) anywhere in the protein, with equal probability 20) Which of the following statements is true about enzyme-catalyzed reactions? A) The reaction is faster than the same reaction in the absence of the enzyme. B) The free-energy change of the reaction is opposite from the reaction that occurs in the absence of the enzyme. C) The reaction always goes in the direction toward chemical equilibrium. D) Enzyme-catalyzed reactions require energy to activate the enzyme. E) Enzyme-catalyzed reactions release more free energy than noncatalyzed reactions. 21) A solution of starch at room temperature does not readily decompose to form a solution of simple sugars because A) the starch solution has less free energy than the sugar solution. B) the hydrolysis of starch to sugar is endergonic. C) the activation energy barrier for this reaction cannot easily be surmounted at room temperature. D) starch cannot be hydrolyzed in the presence of so much water. E) starch hydrolysis is nonspontaneous. 4
22) According to the induced fit hypothesis of enzyme catalysis, which of the following is correct? A) The binding of the substrate depends on the shape of the active site. B) Some enzymes change their structure when activators bind to the enzyme. C) A competitive inhibitor can outcompete the substrate for the active site. D) The binding of the substrate changes the shape of the enzyme's active site. E) The active site creates a microenvironment ideal for the reaction. 23) Increasing the substrate concentration in an enzymatic reaction could overcome which of the following? A) denaturation of the enzyme B) allosteric inhibition C) competitive inhibition D) saturation of the enzyme activity E) insufficient cofactors 24) Zinc, an essential trace element for most organisms, is present in the active site of the enzyme carboxypeptidase. The zinc most likely functions as a(n) A) competitive inhibitor of the enzyme. B) noncompetitive inhibitor of the enzyme. C) allosteric activator of the enzyme. D) cofactor necessary for enzyme activity. E) coenzyme derived from a vitamin. 25) Some of the drugs used to treat HIV patients are competitive inhibitors of the HIV reverse transcriptase enzyme. Unfortunately, the high mutation rate of HIV means that the virus rapidly acquires mutations with amino acid changes that make them resistant to these competitive inhibitors. Where in the reverse transcriptase enzyme would such amino acid changes most likely occur in drug-resistant viruses? A) in or near the active site B) at an allosteric site C) at a cofactor binding site D) in regions of the protein that determine packaging into the virus capsid E) anywhere, with equal probability 26) When you have a severe fever, what grave consequence may occur if the fever is not controlled? A) destruction of your enzymes' primary structure B) removal of amine groups from your proteins C) change in the tertiary structure of your enzymes D) removal of the amino acids in the active sites of your enzymes E) binding of your enzymes to inappropriate substrates 5
27) The mechanism in which the end product of a metabolic pathway inhibits an earlier step in the pathway is most precisely described as A) metabolic inhibition. B) feedback inhibition. C) allosteric inhibition. D) noncooperative inhibition. E) reversible inhibition. 28) Allosteric enzyme regulation is usually associated with A) lack of cooperativity. B) feedback inhibition. C) activating activity. D) an enzyme with more than one subunit. E) the need for cofactors. 29) Some bacteria are metabolically active in hot springs because A) they are able to maintain a lower internal temperature. B) high temperatures make catalysis unnecessary. C) their enzymes have high optimal temperatures. D) their enzymes are completely insensitive to temperature. E) they use molecules other than proteins or RNAs as their main catalysts. 30) If an enzyme in solution is saturated with substrate, the most effective way to obtain a faster yield of products is to A) add more of the enzyme. B) heat the solution to 90 C. C) add more substrate. D) add an allosteric inhibitor. E) add a noncompetitive inhibitor. 6