1. Accuracy is derived by adding the number of individuals correctly classified as either having or not having the condition and dividing that number by the total number of individuals classified. Using the table provided in question 1, what is the accuracy of the Fulcrum test? A. 85% B. 69% C. 38% D. 54% 2. The specificity for the Fulcrum test is 70%. What does this number tell you? A. The Fulcrum test correctly identified 70% of those with stress fractures confirmed by bone scan. B. The Fulcrum test missed 70% of those with stress fractures confirmed by bone scan. C. The Fulcrum test correctly identified 70% of those without stress fractures confirmed by bone scan. D. The Fulcrum test missed 70% of those with stress fractures confirmed by bone scan. 3. The sensitivity of the Fulcrum test in detecting femoral stress fractures is 67%. The sensitivity of bone scan in detecting femoral stress fractures is 98%. What does this information tell you? A. The Fulcrum test is better at identifying those with femoral stress fractures than a bone scan. B. The Fulcrum is worse at identifying those without femoral stress fractures than a bone scan. C. A bone scan is better at identifying those with femoral stress fractures than the Fulcrum test. D. A bone scan is worse at identifying those with femoral stress fractures than the Fulcrum test. 4. Which of the following is correct for a test with a specificity of 99.9%? A. A negative finding almost conclusively rules out the condition. B. A negative finding almost conclusively rules in the condition. C. A positive finding captures 99.9% of patients with the condition. D. A positive finding almost conclusively rules in that the patient has the condition. 5. Which of the following is true about a test s negative predictive value? A. The NPV identifies how often a negative test is accurate B. The NPV identifies the relationship between sensitivity and specificity. C. A condition with a high prevalence will have higher sensitivity D. The NPV identifies someone who does not have the condition of interest 6. You are comparing two studies examining the validity of two diagnostic tests. Both report different predictive values but the same specificity and sensitivity. In Study A, the prevalence of the condition in the target population is 20%. In Study B, the prevalence of the condition in the target population is 0.2%. Why should you not compare the predictive values of both studies to draw your conclusions? A. Conditions with a high prevalence will have an inflated negative predictive value. B. Conditions with a high prevalence will have a deflated positive predictive value. C. Conditions with a low prevalence will have an inflated negative predictive value. D. Conditions with a low prevalence will have a deflated negative predictive value. 7. You want a test that captures all of those individuals who might possibly have an epidural hematoma. Which of the following test results would be most desirable? A. Sensitivity = 98% B. Specificity = 98% C. Positive likelihood ratio = 1.2 D. Negative likelihood ratio = 0.9 1
8. Which of the following is NOT taken into account when determining injury risk? A. The number of newly injured patients B. The number of participant exposures in a defined time period C. The total number of patients are taken into account when determining injury risk 9. As a clinician, you would like to begin implementing a lower extremity balance-training program in hopes to reduce the number of ankle sprains that may occur during a soccer season. You come across an interesting prevention protocol, and discover that a study was conducted between two groups of female soccer athletes (one group underwent the prevention protocol and the other group did not) to determine if the prevention program was effective at reducing the number of ankle sprains sustained during a soccer season. The relative risk determined from the investigation was reported to be 0.30 (30%). What does this value tell us? A. The risk of female soccer athletes sustaining an ankle sprain is 30% higher without the prevention protocol and the risk of injury with the prevention protocol. B. 30% of female soccer athletes will sustain an ankle sprain during one soccer season. C. 30 ankle sprains will occur for a particular soccer team per 1,000 participant exposures. D. The probability that any athlete on a soccer team will sustain at least one ankle sprain during the course of one season is 30%. 10. Which of the following epidemiological measures describes the difference in risk between the experimental group and the control group? B. Numbers Needed to Treat D. Prevalence 11. A new ulnar collateral ligament surgical reconstruction technique is shown to have a number needed to treat to harm of 18. What does this information tell us? A. 1 in every 18 patients that are given this intervention will have a beneficial outcome. B. 1 in every 18 patients that are given this intervention will experience an adverse outcome. C. 18 patients will experience beneficial outcomes per 100 patients that undergo this intervention. D. 18 patients will experience adverse outcomes per 100 patients that undergo this intervention. 12. Which epidemiological measure is determined by dividing the probability of exposure with a condition compared with the probability of exposure with the condition? B. Injury Rate D. Prevalence 13. Participants who participate in pre-season conditioning program have a 43% less chance of sustaining an injury than participants who do not participate in a pre-season conditioning program. This statement is an example finding reported from which of the following epidemiological measures? B. Numbers Needed to Treat D. Relative Risk Reduction 2
14. In which step of the EBP process is the use of informatics useful? A. Searching for evidence B. Appraising the evidence C. Integrating the evidence 15. The ability to recognize when information is needed and possessing the skills to find, evaluate, and use information effectively best describes which of the following: A. Computer informatics B. Health informatics C. Information Literacy D. Medical informatics 16. The synthesis of information through integrating, interpreting, and understanding, best describes which of the following? A. Data B. Information C. Knowledge D. Wisdom 17. A healthcare information system includes both clinical and administrative systems. 18. Electronic medical records (EMR) and electronic health records mean the same thing and can be used interchangeably. 19. Information contained within an EHR should be accessible to the patient. 20. Which of the following is not a characteristic of an EHR? A. Secure reliable real time access to client health record information B. Records and manages only the current episode of care C. Serves as the primary information resource for the provider during the episode of care D. Assists with planning and delivery of evidence-based care to individuals and groups 21. Which of the following is a benefit to the healthcare provider, when using an EHR? A. Faster chart access B. More comprehensive information C. Fewer lost records 22. Patients can benefit if their information is contained within an EHR. 3
23. Which of the following records is maintained by the patient? A. Electronic medical record B. Electronic health record C. Personal health record D. None of the above 24. The benefit of using a standardized clinical terminology is that it facilitates communication and sharing of information across providers, and even across professions. 25. Which of the following are important in maintaining system security? A. HIPAA compliant B. Password use C. Servers in restricted areas 26. Successful EHRs follow a standard template and are do not allow the clinician to personalize his/her documentation style. 27. Which step of the Clinical Prediction Rule (CPR) development process are most CPRs classified as? A. Validation B. Prediction C. Impact D. Derivation 28. What Level of Evidence is associated with most CPRs? A. I B. II C. III D. IV 29. What makes validation CPRs different from derivation CPRs? A. Validation CPRs use a different set of predictor variables B. Validation CPRs are conducted with a different patient population C. Validation CPRs occur at more than one clinical practice D. Validation CPRs include the examination of health related costs 30. Which of the types of CPRs is associated with whether or not a condition is present or absent? A. Prognostic B. Diagnostic C. Interventional D. Prevention 31. Which of the types of CPRs is associated with prediction of recovery? A. Prognostic B. Diagnostic C. Interventional D. Prevention 4
32. Why is an impact analysis necessary to conduct for a CPR? A. Measures cost effectiveness B. Measures whether one CPR outcome is better than another C. Analyzes use of the CPR D. Analyzes if the CPR can be utilized with all types of populations 5