MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION PAPER Paper number MPEFH2.01 Please insert this reference number in the appropriate boxes on your candidate answer sheet Title Time allocation 60 minutes MOCK PAPER Level 2 Principles of Exercise, Fitness and Health A/600/9017 Special Instructions This theory paper comprises questions that are indicative of the Level 2 Principles of Exercise, Fitness and Health unit All questions are multiple-choice. Answers should be recorded as either a, b, c or d. This theory paper has 40 marks. A minimum total of 28 marks overall (70%) is required in order to pass. Important: Please do not write on this paper. Note: You may use a calculator for this assessment. Central YMCA Qualifications 0613-1 -
Q1 Which of the following term refers to the number of heart beats/ contractions per minute? (1 mark) a. Cardiac output b. Stroke volume c. Cardiac arrest d. Heart rate Q2 When an individual begins the warm up component of an exercise session which of the following short term adaptations will take place? (1 mark) a. Increased dilation of blood vessels b. Decreased numbers of mitochondria c. Decreased dilation of blood vessels d. Increased numbers of mitochondria Q3 Which of the following is a short term effect of exercise on blood pressure? (1 mark) a. Both systolic pressure and diastolic pressure rises b. Systolic pressure rises and diastolic pressure remains unchanged c. Both systolic pressure and diastolic pressure falls d. Systolic pressure falls and diastolic pressure remains unchanged Q4 Which of the following types of training would be most likely to lower blood pressure in the long term? (1 mark) a. Aerobic b. Strength c. Power d. Flexibility Central YMCA Qualifications 0613-2 -
Q5 Which of the following is a possible effect of blood pooling? (1 mark) a. Hypertension b. DOMS c. Hypertrophy d. Fainting Q6 Which of the following is a long term effect of exercise on bones and joints? (1 mark) a. Decreased stability of joints b. Thickening of hyaline cartilage c. Decreased synovial fluid production d. Increased bone density Q7 What is DOMS (delayed onset muscle soreness)? (1 mark) a. An advanced method of stretching muscles b. A training method used to encourage hypertrophy c. Micro tearing of muscle fibres resulting in pain and inflammation d. An alternative name for the rest period between sets Q8 Which of the following types of muscle contraction is most likely to cause DOMS (delayed onset muscle soreness)? (1 mark) a. Eccentric b. Isometric c. Concentric d. Isotonic Central YMCA Qualifications 0613-3 -
Q9 What is the effect of increased mitochondria in the muscles? (1 mark) a. Increased blood flow to the heart b. Improved aerobic energy production c. Improved anaerobic energy production d. Increased blood flow to muscles Q10 Which of the following is a long term effect of exercise on type 1 muscle fibres? (1 mark) a. A decrease in their diameter of the muscle fibres b. A decrease in the number and size of mitochondria c. An increase in the number and size of mitochondria d. An increase in the diameter of the muscle fibres Q11 For someone who has a lordotic posture, which of the following would prove most beneficial? (1 mark) a. Lying gluteal stretch b. Standing adductor stretch c. Seated pectoral stretch d. Kneeling hip flexor stretch Q12 Diet is an example of which component of total fitness? (1 mark) a. Medical fitness b. Spiritual fitness c. Nutritional fitness d. Social fitness Central YMCA Qualifications 0613-4 -
Q13 Which one of the following is a component of skill-related fitness? (1 mark) a. Power b. Strength c. Flexibility d. Stamina Q14 Which of the following is the body type genetically advantaged in jumping and throwing activities? (1 mark) a. Mesomorph b. Ectomorph c. Polymorph d. Endomorph Q15 Which of the following will increase overload during a resistance training exercise? (1 mark) a. Decreasing the range of movement b. Decreasing the rest period between sets c. Decreasing the resistance d. Decreasing the lever length Q16 What is meant by reversibility when referring to the principles of training applied to an exercise programme? (1 mark) a. Both push and pull exercises should be included to maintain muscle balance b. When designing a programme, sufficient time should be allowed to fully recover to prevent training gains from being lost c. Without a regular training stimulus fitness levels decline to their pre-training levels d. Maintenance stretches should be included to prevent muscles returning to their pre-activity length Central YMCA Qualifications 0613-5 -
Q17 Which of the following terms defines the method of training or mode of exercise? (1 mark) a. Frequency b. Intensity c. Time d. Type Q18 The overload principle states that (1 mark) a. a training programme should be relevant and appropriate for the individual and their specific training requirements b. training adaptations will gradually decline if training stops or a maintenance programme is not followed c. in order to make improvements, a body system must work at a level slightly higher than that to which it is accustomed d. without sufficient recovery time, improvements in fitness will not take place Q19 Which of the following situations indicate that a training programme should be regressed? (1 mark) a. After an injury b. When intensity is achievable c. After a two day break d. When short of time Q20 The frequency of exercise can be progressed by (1 mark) a. increasing the number of repetitions per set b. increasing the number of sessions per week c. decreasing the number of sessions per week d. decreasing the number of repetitions per set Central YMCA Qualifications 0613-6 -
Q21 Which of the following is most likely to be associated with increasing the speed of an exercise? (1 mark) a. Improved alignment of joints b. Decrease in intensity c. Greater potential for injury d. Improved ability to demonstrate correct technique Q22 Which of the following progressions uses the effect of levers as a method of overloading on the target muscles? (1 mark) a. Squats followed by lunges b. Box press up followed by full press up c. Lat pull down followed by bicep curls d. Bench press followed by flyes Q23 Which of the following factors is a key difference between planning exercise for physical fitness and for health benefits? (1 mark) a. Duration b. Variation c. Consistency d. Overload Q24 Due to the risk of osteoporosis, when programming for older people which of the following types of exercise should be avoided? (1 mark) a. Functional movement drills b. Motor skills training c. High impact exercise d. Heavy weight training Central YMCA Qualifications 0613-7 -
Q25 Which of the following types of stretching is suitable for an ante natal client? (1 mark) a. Maintenance b. Developmental c. PNF (proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation) d. Ballistic Q26 Which of the following should be avoided when programming for 14-16 year olds? (1 mark) a. Pushing and pulling exercises b. Prolonged anaerobic exercise c. Body weight exercises d. Aerobic interval training Q27 When working with disabled people what is the most important factor to consider? (1 mark) a. The additional time required b. Own limitations/scope of practice c. The exclusion of high intensity exercise d. The type of equipment to be used Central YMCA Qualifications 0613-8 -
Q28 For individuals who want to manage their weight the fitness zone would need to be used (1 mark) a. for short periods of time b. at less than 40% of maximum heart rate (MHR) c. for prolonged periods of time d. at more than 80% of maximum heart rate (MHR) Q29 Which of the following conditions can weight-bearing physical activity help reduce? (1 mark) a. Osteoarthritis b. Shin splints c. Rheumatoid arthritis d. Osteoporosis Q30 Why are developmental stretches contraindicated during pregnancy? (1 mark) a. The relaxin produced weakens attachments b. The relaxin produced decreases the elasticity of muscles c. The relaxin produced raises blood pressure d. The relaxin produced causes increased flexibility of joints Q31 According to the Eatwell Plate which of the following food groups should make up the largest section of the food plate? (1 mark) a. Milk and dairy foods b. Foods and drinks high in sugar and/or fats c. Meat, fish, eggs and beans d. Bread, rice, potatoes, pasta and other starchy foods Central YMCA Qualifications 0613-9 -
Q32 How many portions of fruit and vegetables do the UK government recommend are eaten per day? (1 mark) a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 Q33 Which of the following factors has the greatest significance when determining how much water an individual should drink? (1 mark) a. Activity level b. Gender c. Age d. Weight Q34 What sort of nutritional advice is a fitness instructor qualified to provide? (1 mark) a. Advice in line with current fad diets only b. Detailed dietary advice following analysis of food diaries only c. Advice in line with national healthy eating guidelines only d. Detailed dietary advice for physical activity only Q35 What is the key role of carbohydrates in the diet? (1 mark) a. The production of calcium b. To provide energy c. To provide insulin d. The growth and development of cells Central YMCA Qualifications 0613-10 -
Q36 What is the key role of fats in the diet? (1 mark) a. Storage of minerals b. Repair and growth c. To provide insulation d. Production of red blood cells Q37 Which of the following is the best source of unsaturated fats? (1 mark) a. Nuts b. Meat c. Suet d. Cheese Q38 How does exercise reduce the risk of osteoporosis? (1 mark) a. By improving posture b. By reducing blood pressure c. By reducing resting heart rate d. By increasing bone density Q39 Which of the following will result in weight maintenance? (1 mark) a. Less energy expended than consumed b. More energy consumed than expended c. Same energy consumed as expended d. More energy expended than consumed Central YMCA Qualifications 0613-11 -
Q40 A diet low in vitamins and minerals can result in conditions such as. (1 mark) a. Obesity b. Coronary heart disease c. Anaemia d. Type 1 diabetes Central YMCA Qualifications 0613-12 -