Basic Pre-Hospital Emergency Medical Care for Firefighters. Chapter Test. Directions: Write the correct letter on the blank before each question.

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1 Chapter 21 Test Name: Date: Directions: Write the correct letter on the blank before each question. Objective 1: Discuss the importance of body substance isolation (BSI). 1. Which body fluids must be considered infectious? (1004) A. All body fluids B. Those from known drug users C. Those from patients with hepatitis or AIDS D. Those from patients at a high risk for diseases 2. Which of the following is a requirement of employers regarding BSI? (1004) A. Employers must develop a written exposure control plan. B. Employers must compensate employees who are exposed to dangerous diseases. C. Employers must ensure that employees are notified when a patient is confirmed to be infectious. D. Employers are not responsible for any facet of BSI. Objective 2: Describe the components of personal protective equipment. 3. Which of the following types of gloves are NOT considered safe whenever there is the potential for contact with blood or other body fluids? (1005) A. Vinyl B. Latex C. Leather D. Synthetic Oklahoma State University 21-1

2 4. In which of the following situations are alcohol-based hand cleaners NOT considered effective? ( ) A. After patient contact B. After contact with blood C. When hands are visibly soiled D. After contact with body fluids of any kind 5. In cases where is suspected, an N-95 or HEPA respirator should be used. (1006) A. HIV B. AIDS C. hepatitis D. tuberculosis Objective 3: Discuss diseases of concern. 6. Which disease of concern is an infection that causes an inflammation of the liver? (1007) A. AIDS B. Hepatitis C. West Nile D. Tuberculosis 7. Which disease of concern results from the immune system being attacked by HIV? (1008) A. AIDS B. SARS C. Hepatitis D. West Nile 8. Which disease of concern is a respiratory virus with symptoms that include fever, dry cough, and difficulty breathing? (1009) A. SARS B. AIDS C. West Nile D. Hepatitis Oklahoma State University 21-2

3 9. Which type of hepatitis is acquired through contact with stool? (1007) A. Hepatitis A B. Hepatitis B C. Hepatitis C D. Hepatitis Delta Which disease of concern has been found to live for many days in dried blood spills? (1007) A. Hepatitis A B. Hepatitis B C. HIV/AIDS D. Tuberculosis Which of the following diseases of concern causes the LEAST risk to health-care workers? (1008) A. AIDS B. Hepatitis A C. Hepatitis B D. Tuberculosis Objective 4: Describe laws that relate to infection control Which law mandates a procedure by which emergency response personnel can seek to find out if they have been exposed to potentially life-threatening diseases while providing patient care? ( ) A. Ryan White CARE Act B. Hepatitis Exposure Requirement C. Tuberculosis Compliance Mandate D. Occupational Exposure to Bloodborne Pathogens Which of the following is NOT required of employers by the Occupational Exposure to Bloodborne Pathogens standard? (1010) A. Training B. Vaccinations C. Protective equipment D. Post-traumatic stress counseling Oklahoma State University 21-3

4 The Ryan White CARE Act requires every state s public health officer to designate an official within every emergency response organization to act as a: (1011) A. safety officer. B. health officer. C. designated officer. D. accountability officer. Which of the following is NOT a sign and symptom of tuberculosis? (1013) A. Weight loss B. Bloody stool C. Productive cough D. Lethargy and weakness Objective 5: Explain the importance of immunizations Which of the following does NOT currently have an immunization? (1014) A. Mumps B. Measles C. Hepatitis B D. Tuberculosis Which of the following immunizations is usually made available through the fire department or local health department? ( ) A. West Nile B. Hepatitis B C. Hepatitis C D. Tuberculosis Objective 6: Describe the physiological aspects of stress. 18. Which is the first stage of the body s response to stress? (1015) A. Exhaustion B. Completion C. Alarm reaction D. Stage of resistance Oklahoma State University 21-4

5 In which stage of general adaptation syndrome does the sympathetic nervous system increase in activity in what is known as the fight or flight syndrome? (1015) A. Exhaustion B. Completion C. Alarm reaction D. Stage of resistance At which stage of general adaptation syndrome does the body s systems return to normal functioning? (1015) A. Exhaustion B. Completion C. Alarm reaction D. Stage of resistance Objective 7: Describe types of stress reactions. 21. Which type of stress reaction is often linked to catastrophes? (1015) A. Acute stress reaction B. Delayed stress reaction C. Cumulative stress reaction D. Cataclysmic stress reaction 22. Which type of stress reaction is not triggered by a single critical incident, but from sustained, recurring low-level stressors? (1016) A. Acute stress reaction B. Delayed stress reaction C. Cumulative stress reaction D. Cataclysmic stress reaction Objective 8: Summarize causes of stress. 23. Which of the following statements about the causes of stress is LEAST accurate? (1017) A. Stress is often caused by no reason at all. B. Multiple-casualty incidents can cause stress. C. Personal problems can lead to stress on the job. D. Stress may stem from a combination of factors. Oklahoma State University 21-5

6 Objective 9: List signs and symptoms of stress Which type of stress is a positive form that helps people work under pressure? (1017) A. Eustress B. Distress C. Acute stress D. Delayed stress Which type of stress is negative and can happen when the stress of a scene becomes overwhelming? ( ) A. Eustress B. Distress C. Acute stress D. Delayed stress Objective 10: Explain various ways to deal with stress. 26. Which of the following is NOT a way to deal with stress? (1018) A. Exercise. B. Devote time to relaxing. C. Increase consumption of alcohol and caffeine. D. Avoid fatty foods and increase carbohydrate intake. Objective 11: Describe scene safety considerations at hazardous materials incidents and rescue operations. 27. What is the primary rule at a hazardous materials incident? (1018) A. Maintain a safe distance from the source of the hazardous material. B. Take whatever actions are necessary to stop the leak of the hazardous material. C. Do not respond to hazardous materials incidents until a haz mat team is on scene. D. Maintain close contact with the source of the hazardous material in order to determine what is inside. Oklahoma State University 21-6

7 28. Which of the following provides important information about the properties of dangerous substances and should be placed in every vehicle that responds to a hazardous materials incident? (1018) A. Emergency Response Guidebook B. Introduction to Hazardous Materials C. Hazardous Materials for First Responders D. Managing the Hazardous Materials Incident Objective 12: Describe actions required when responding to scenes involving violent or dangerous situations Which of the following is NOT an action required when responding to a scene involving violent or dangerous situations? (1019) A. Act B. Plan C. React D. Observe Which of the following should be observed at a scene involving violent or dangerous situations? ( ) A. Number of pedestrians B. Small children C. The neighborhood D. The ethnicity of bystanders Which of the following is NOT one of the three R s of reacting to a scene involving violent or dangerous situations? (1021) A. Radio B. Retreat C. Respond D. Reevaluate Oklahoma State University 21-7

8 Objective 13: Discuss the circulatory system Which of the following is the purpose of the circulatory system? (1022) A. It transports food and nutrients to the digestive system. B. It delivers oxygen and nutrients to the body s tissues. C. It circulates oxygenated air between the upper and lower airways. D. It is responsible for delivering electronic responses from the brain through the spinal cord. Which parts of the circulatory system allow for the exchange of gases and nutrients between the blood and the cells of the body? (1023) A. Veins B. Arteries C. Capillaries D. Blood vessels The side of the heart receives oxygenated blood from the lungs and pumps it to all parts of the body. (1023) A. left B. right C. upper D. lower A pulse is an indication of the wave of blood sent through the when the heart pumps. (1024) A. veins B. arteries C. capillaries D. blood vessels If a patient is clinically dead for minutes, brain cells begin to die. (1024) A. 1 to 2 B. 2 to 4 C. 4 to 6 D. 8 to 10 Oklahoma State University 21-8

9 Objective 14: List the links in the chain of survival. 37. Which of the following is NOT a link in the chain of survival? ( ) A. Early CPR B. Early access C. Early basic care D. Early defibrillation Objective 15: Explain actions to be taken before resuscitation Which of the following is NOT a part of the assessment of a patient? ( ) A. Determine pulselessness. B. Determine breathlessness. C. Determine unresponsiveness. D. Determine pulmonary responsiveness. Which maneuver is most commonly used to open the airway of an unconscious patient with suspected head, neck, or spinal injuries? (1029) A. Jaw-thrust B. Head-thrust C. Head-tilt, chin-lift D. Chin-tilt, head-lift 40. After activating EMS, what should be done next? (1027) A. Open the airway. B. Assess the patient. C. Position the patient. D. Perform rescue breathing. 41. When performing the head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver, tilt the head by applying gentle pressure to the patient s: (1028) A. chin. B. ears. C. jaw. D. forehead. Oklahoma State University 21-9

10 Objective 16: Discuss rescue breathing. 42. What is the ventilation duration on an adult patient? (1030) A. 1/second B. 2/second C. 3/second D. 4/second 43. What is the ventilation rate on a child patient? (1030) A breaths/minute B breaths/minute C breaths/minute D breaths/minute 44. Improper rescue breathing can cause: (1030) A. internal bleeding. B. gastric distention. C. tracheal disturbance. D. pulmonary expansion. Objective 17: Describe the steps of cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). 45. Which of the following is the FIRST step of CPR? (1031) A. Check for circulation. B. Perform rescue breathing. C. Provide chest compressions. D. Check for airway obstructions. 46. You should NEVER initiate CPR on any adult who has: (1032) A. a pulse. B. a head trauma. C. irregular breathing. D. spontaneous circulation. Oklahoma State University 21-10

11 Which of the following is NOT a rule for providing chest compressions? (1032) A. Keep your elbows bent. B. Deliver compressions straight down. C. Place shoulders directly over your hands. D. Fully release pressure on the patient s sternum without lifting hands from patient. When joining CPR in progress, allow the first rescuer to complete a cycle of: (1033) A. 15 compressions and 1 ventilation. B. 15 compressions and 2 ventilations. C. 30 compressions and 1 ventilation. D. 30 compressions and 2 ventilations. Objective 18: Describe the CPR techniques for an infant patient. 49. What ages are considered an infant patient? (1035) A. Birth-1 year B. Birth-2 years C. 1-2 years D. 1-3 years 50. What is the compression rate for a newborn? (1036) A. 80/minute B. 100/minute C. 120/minute D. 150/minute 51. What is the compressions-to-ventilations ratio for a newborn? (1036) A. 3:1 B. 15:2 C. 30:1 D. 30:2 Oklahoma State University 21-11

12 Objective 19: Describe the CPR techniques for a child patient. 52. What ages are considered a child patient? (1036) A. Birth-1 year B. 1-3 years C. 1-8 years D. 1 year - puberty 53. What is the compression depth for a child patient? (1036) A. 1/3 to ½ depth of chest B. ½ to ¾ depth of chest C. 1½ to 2 inches D. 2 to 4 inches 54. When working alone on a child patient, call after: (1036) A. 2 minutes of resuscitation. B. 5 minutes of resuscitation. C. determining pulselessness. D. determining breathlessness. Objective 20: Describe the CPR techniques for an adult patient. 55. What is the compression depth for an adult patient? (1036) A. 1/3 to ½ depth of chest B. ½ to ¾ depth of chest C. 1½ to 2 inches D. 2 to 4 inches 56. What is the compression rate for an adult patient? (1036) A. 80/minute B. 100/minute C. 120/minute D. 150/minute 57. Where is the pulse check location for an adult patient? (1036) A. Radial artery B. Brachial artery C. Carotid artery D. Femoral artery Oklahoma State University 21-12

13 Objective 21: Discuss indications of effective CPR and when CPR may be interrupted. 58. Which of the following is NOT an indication of effective CPR? ( ) A. Carotid pulse B. Dilated pupils C. Exhalation of air D. Spontaneous heartbeat 59. Which of the following is NOT a reason to interrupt CPR? (1036) A. To allow for defibrillation B. To move patient onto a stretcher C. To suction vomitus or airway obstructions D. To move patient to a more convenient location Objective 22: Summarize when not to begin or to terminate CPR Which of the following is a reason not to begin or to terminate CPR? (1037) A. Pulselessness B. Constricted pupils C. Obvious mortal wounds D. Apnea Which of the following is NOT a reason to stop CPR once you have already started? (1037) A. Spontaneous circulation occurs B. Another trained rescuer can take over C. You receive a no CPR order from a physician D. If you have been working alone for more than 10 minutes Oklahoma State University 21-13

14 Objective 23: Summarize actions taken when clearing an airway obstruction Which type of airway obstruction occurs if the patient can speak or cough? (1038) A. Total B. Partial C. Severe D. Complete Which procedure should be used for an conscious adult or child with an airway obstruction? (1038) A. Chest thrusts B. Abdominal thrusts C. Head-tilt, jaw-thrust D. Series of 5 back blows and 5 chest thrusts What procedure should be used for a conscious infant with an airway obstruction? (1039) A. Chest thrusts B. Perform CPR C. Abdominal thrusts D. Series of 5 back blows and 5 chest thrusts Objective 24: Describe the main components of the circulatory system. 65. Which component of the circulatory system pumps blood? (1041) A. Vein B. Heart C. Artery D. Capillary 66. Which component of the circulatory system takes blood from the arteries? (1041) A. Vein B. Heart C. Capillary D. Blood vessel Oklahoma State University 21-14

15 Objective 25: Differentiate between arterial, venous, and capillary bleeding. 67. Which type of bleeding is bright red in color? (1042) A. Arterial bleeding B. Venous bleeding C. Capillary bleeding D. Pulmonary bleeding Which type of bleeding is usually somewhere between bright red and dark red? (1043) A. Arterial bleeding B. Venous bleeding C. Capillary bleeding D. Pulmonary bleeding Which type of bleeding has a steady flow and is usually easy to control? (1042) A. Arterial bleeding B. Venous bleeding C. Capillary bleeding D. Pulmonary bleeding Objective 26: Describe the steps for controlling external bleeding. 70. Which is the most common and effective way to control external bleeding? (1044) A. Elevation B. Direct pressure C. Pressure points D. Prompt transport 71. When should pressure points be used? (1045) A. Only in cases of head injury B. Only if alone and EMS services are not nearby C. Before attempting direct pressure and elevation D. Only after direct pressure and elevation have failed Oklahoma State University 21-15

16 72. What should be done if cerebrospinal fluid is leaking from a patient s ears or nose? ( ) A. Allow the drainage to flow freely. B. Provide suction of the leaking fluid. C. Stop the leaking and bleeding immediately. D. Apply direct pressure to the fleshy portion around the nostrils. Objective 27: Discuss internal bleeding. 73. Which of the following is NOT a sign of internal bleeding? (1049) A. A tender or rigid abdomen B. Painful or swollen extremities C. Bruising or swelling over vital organs D. Leaking of clear fluid from the nose or ears 74. Which of the following statements about internal bleeding is MOST accurate? (1048) A. Internal bleeding most often occurs to the extremities. B. Internal bleeding is bleeding that occurs outside the body. C. Internal bleeding can easily be seen by trained professionals. D. Internal bleeding can be caused by blunt or penetrating trauma. Objective 28: Describe types of shock Which type of shock is the type most commonly seen by EMT-Bs? (1051) A. Shock B. Cardiogenic shock C. Hypovolemic shock D. Neurogenic/vasodilatory shock Which type of shock results from the uncontrolled dilation of blood vessels due to nerve paralysis caused by spinal cord injuries? (1051) A. Shock B. Cardiogenic shock C. Hypovolemic shock D. Neurogenic/vasodilatory shock Oklahoma State University 21-16

17 77. Which type of shock may be caused by burns or crush injuries? (1051) A. Shock B. Cardiogenic shock C. Hypovolemic shock D. Neurogenic/vasodilatory shock Objective 29: Describe the signs of shock. 78. Which sign of shock is caused by the diversion of blood from nonvital areas to the vital organs? (1052) A. Vital sign changes B. Nausea and vomiting C. Pale, cool, clammy skin D. Altered mental status 79. When in shock, what are the first vital signs to change? (1052) A. Pulse and liver function B. Respirations and lung function C. Blood pressure and respirations D. Respiratorations and pulse Objective 30: Describe the steps for managing shock. 80. Which of the following is a step for managing shock? (1053) A. Maintain an open airway. B. Administer IV drugs if trained to do so. C. Control internal bleeding as well as possible. D. Decrease body heat by applying cool compresses. Oklahoma State University 21-17