SIMPLE CHOICE TESTS. 1/What is the expected sterility assurance level in pharmaceutical industry? A 10-5 B 10-6 C 10-7 D 10-8 E 10-9

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1 SIMPLE CHOICE TESTS B 1/What is the expected sterility assurance level in pharmaceutical industry? A 10-5 B 10-6 C 10-7 D 10-8 E /Which is not typical in bacterial genome? A circular B haploid C introns D no nucleus E transposons 3/Which does not change the bacterial genetic material? A transformation B transduction C elongation D plasmid insertion E conjugation 4/Characterize the BCG vaccine! A Live, attenuated M. bovis B Acellular M. bovis C Capsule D Heat-killed M. bovis E Recombinant DNA vaccine 5/What is the causative agent of whooping cough? A Listeria monocytogenes B Helicobacter pylori C Bordetella pertussis D Corynebacterium diphtheriae E Mycobacterium smegmatis 6/The presence of Babes-Ernst granulates is characteristic in: A Listeria monocytogenes B Helicobacter pylori C Bordetella pertussis D Corynebacterium diphtheriae E Mycobacterium smegmatis

2 7/What type of vaccine is used to prevent whooping cough in Hungary currently? A Live, attenuated Bordetella pertussis B Recombinant DNA vaccine C Capsule D Heat-killed Corynebacterium diphtheriae E Acellular pertussis components 8/Immunological pathomechanism of respiratory allergies A DTH (Type IV hypersensitivity) B ADCC (Type II hypersensitivity) C Immediate (Type I) hypersensitivity D Immuncomplex disease (Type III hypersensitivity) E Anti-idiotype antibody production 9/Which disease may necessitate the induction of regulatory T cells? A Hypersensitivity reactions B Humoral immunodeficiency C Malignant tumors D Chronic inflammation E Cellular immunodeficiency 10/Which kind of therapy is NOT recommended in anaphylactic allergic reactions? A steroids B chromolates C IgE D epinephrine E antihistamines 11/Characteristic for the expression of MHC II. antigens: A They are present in the red blood cells B They are present on the surface of professional antigen presenting cells C They are present in the cytoplasm of all nucleated cells D They are present on the surface of all nucleated cells and platelets E Dependent on the presence of antigen 12/Promotes the IgE production during the isotype switch of B cells A IFN- B TGF- C IL-2 D IL-4 E all of them

3 13/Essential part of the bacteria A endospore B flagellum C cytoplasm D pilus E capsule 14/What is the chemical composition of the bacterial capsule? A polysaccharide B lipid C protein D phospholipid E teichoic-acid 15/Who invented the Salvarsan used in syphilis therapy? A Alexander Fleming B Dimitrij Ivanovszkij C Gerhard Domagk D Ilya Metchnikov E Paul Ehrlich 16/Who invented the Prontosil? A Alexander Fleming B Dimitrij Ivanovszkij C Gerhard Domagk D Ilya Metchnikov E Paul Ehrlich 17/Which staining method is used for the detection of Babes Ernst granules of Corynebacterium diphtheriae? A Gram staining B Neisser staining C Schaffer-Foulton staining D Ziehl-Neelsen staining E Indian ink staining 18/The drug is use in the treatment of scarlatina A Penicillin B Sulfonamid C Cephalosporin D Tetracyclin E Vancomycin

4 19/What is the mechanism of action in the case of beta-lactam antibiotics? A 23S rrna binding B PBP binding C Porin channel inhibition D Girase inhibition E None of these 20/How Neisseria meningitidis bacteria look like? A grape like B chain like C occur in pairs D rod shape E single cocci 21/What is the causative agent of ophtalmia neonatorum? A Staphylococcus aureus B Staphylococcus epidermidis C Neisseria gonorrhoeae D Streptococcus pyogenes E Streptococcus pneumoniae 22/What is the causative agent of TSS (toxic shock syndrome)? A Escherichia coli B Neisseria meningitidis C Shigella sonnei D Staphylococcus aureus E Neisseria gonorrhoeae 23/What is the characteristic of B2 lymphocytes? A monospecific B absence of somatic mutation C recognition of polysaccharides as antigen D small repertoir E develop in the peritoneum with asymmetric division 24/What is the characteristic of the humoral immune response against T-dependent antigens? A development of memory cells B No isotype switching C No affinity maturation D the antigens are usually polysaccharides E develops in athymic mice

5 25/What is the characteristic of IgM molecule? A contains 5 heavy and 5 light chains B an extra J chain is found in the molecule C two isotypes D can get through the placenta E has important role in the parasite infections 26/The most important resistance mechanism in the case of beta-lactam antibiotics: A Porin channel mutation B Acetylase enzyme production C Beta-lactamase production D Efflux pumps E None of these 27/Which of the following adverse effects is NOT characteristic in the case of aminoglycoside antibiotics? A Ototoxicity B Nephrotoxicity C Anaphylactic reaction D Nausea, vomiting E Neuromuscular blockade 28/If the D value for the Bacillus stearothermophylus is 1,5 min (at 121 C), and Z value is 10 C, than D value at 111 C is: A 0,15 min B 1,5 min C 2 min D 5 min E 15 min 29/In vivo pyrogenicity test is: A mouse inoculation B rabbit inoculation C hamster inoculation D Limulus test E Jarisch-Herxheimer test 30/The presence of Escherichia coli is allowed in the following microbiological purity class of pharmaceuticals: A only 4 B 3 and 4 C none of them D all of them E only 1

6 31/High affinity ligand of IgE molecules A CD4 molecules expressed on the surface of macrophages B Fcγ receptors expressed by follicular dendritic cells C High affinity Fcε receptor (Fcε RI.) expressed by mast cells D CD28 receptors expressed by mast cells E All Fc receptors independently from the cell type expressed 32/What happens with the T cells in the thymus? A positive selection B negative selection C apoptosis D all of them E none of them 33/Common characteristics of the hypersensitive reactions: A Induced only by well conserved auto-antigens B Cause cell/tissue destruction C Caused by a local Th1 Th2 imbalance D Caused by the humoral immune response only E They develop immediately (in minutes) after antigen challenge A= 1., 2., 3. correct B =1., 3. correct C= 2., 4. correct D= 4. correct E= all are correct MULTIPLE CHOICE 34/Which species are atypical Mycobacteria? 1. Mycobacterium kansasii 2. Mycobacterium scrofulaceum 3. Mycobacterium ulcerans 4. Mycobacterium tuberculosis 35/What are the possible manifestations of extrapulmonary tuberculosis? 1. Meningitis basilaris tuberculosa 2. Genitourinary TB 3. Bone TB 4. Gastrointestinal TB 36/Choose the first line antituberculotic drugs! 1. Isoniacid 2. Rifampicin 3. Pyrazinamid 4. Ethambutol

7 37/What are the diseases caused by Legionella pneumophila? 1. Listeriosis 2. Legionnaire s disease 3. Tuberculosis 4. Pontiac fever 38/Listeria monocytogenes is the causative agent of: 1. Legionellosis 2. Lepromatous leprosy 3. Not a human pathogen 4. Listeriosis 39/What are the virulence factors of Bordetella pertussis? 1. Pertussis toxin (Pt) 2. Tracheal cytotoxin (TCT) 3. Filamentous haemagglutin (FHA) 4. Diphtheria toxin (Dt) 40/The non-essential part of the bacteria 1. endospore 2. capsule 3. flagellum 4. nucleolid 41/What is the characteristic of the flagellum? 1. provide motility for bacteria 2. inhibits the phagocytosis 3. important virulence factor 4. its chemical components are lipids 42/Tests based on precipitation 1. Gruber-Widal reaction 2. Elek test 3. Coombs test 4. linear immunodiffusion 43/Antimicrobial susceptibility testing 1. Elek test 2. E-test 3. Coombs test 4. Disk diffusion test

8 44/The tetracyclines are: 1. Bacteriostatic 2. Broad-spectrum antibiotics 3. Pumped out by efflux pumps in the resistant bacteria 4. Nucleic acid synthesis inhibitors 45/Which of the following is NOT characteristic in the case of fluoroquinolon antibiotics? 1. Girase and topoisomerase inhibitors 2. They inhibit nuicleic acid synthesis 3. Bactericide drugs 4. Beta lactamases destroy them 46/The Vibrio cholerae: 1. produces exotoxin 2. is Gram-positive 3. causes an intensive diarrhoeae with hypovolaemia 4. not culturable 47/The Yersinia enterocolitica: 1. is Gram-negative, non-sporing rod 2. can cause abscess in the mesenterical lymph nodes 3. infects orally 4. is a respiratory pathogen 48/E. coli strains that cause ENTERIC disease are: 1. EPEC 2. EIEC 3. EHEC 4. UPEC 49/Urinary tract infections caused by E. coli can be cured by: 1. Vancomycin 2. Mupirocin 3. Streptomycin 4. Fluoroquinolones 50/Components of the Streptococcus pneumoniae vaccines 1. polysaccharide capsule of the bacterium 2. whole, killed bacteria 3. polysaccharide capsule of the bacterium conjugated with protein 4. live, attenuated bacteria