ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY WINTER 2013 TEST 2

Transcription

1 ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY WINTER 2013 TEST 2 You have two hours for this test. When finished, please return all materials to the front and record your name on the sign out sheet. On the bubble sheet, use pencil to print your name and student number AND fill in the appropriate bubbles for both. Multi-Choice Questions (50% of test mark) For each of the 50 questions, use pencil to record the most correct answer in the appropriate bubble. Do not leave any blanks and erase any mistakes completely before recording your corrected response. Short-Answer (Mini-Essay) Questions (50% of test mark) Answer five (5) of the following seven (7) questions in 2-3 brief paragraphs. Incorporate as much information in as well organized a manner as time allows. Begin each question on a new page of the answer booklet. You may write on both the lined and unlined sides of the page. 1. What are some important considerations in determining different degrees of addiction in Substance Abuse Disorders? 2. Describe causal factors that may contribute to Antisocial Personality Disorder. 3. Describe some tasks and findings that test the hypothesis that schizophrenia is due to an inhibitory dysfunction. 4. Describe examples of and major issues associated with the Dissociative Disorders. 5. What factors play a role in the development and maintenance of Eating Disorders? 6. Your friend argues that sleeping difficulties are not so important that they require professional psychological help. Would you agree or disagree? Explain why. 7. Describe the major sex- and gender-related disorders.

2 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 1. What is the common aspect of all somatoform disorders? a. a pathological belief that one's appearance is ugly b. a pathological concern with appearance or functioning of the body c. a pathological concern with the meaning of a physical pain d. a pathological belief that a serious medical condition will cause death 2. Which of the following characterizes the disorder called Munchausen syndrome by proxy (or factitious disorder by proxy)? a. deliberate actions directed toward making a child sick b. a parent developing the same symptoms that the child has c. a parent lying to a doctor (e.g., saying that the child has had symptoms that never really existed) d. convincing a child to lie to a doctor about factitious symptoms 3. What is body dysmorphic disorder? a. grossly overestimating one's body weight b. seeing oneself as having some defect in appearance even though none exists c. an exaggerated fear of physical deformities d. a morbid preoccupation with an existing physical defect 4. In localized amnesia, one form of dissociative amnesia, the individual typically has no memory of which of the following? a. events prior to a trauma b. anything, including who he or she is c. events following a trauma d. selective events, particularly those involving trauma 5. The available clinical evidence regarding the scientific validity of dissociative identity disorder (DID), is best described by which of the following statements? a. Objective tests can be used to determine which patients are faking dissociative identity disorder. b. Most DID patients are faking. c. Research suggests that faking dissociative experiences is possible. d. It is virtually impossible to fake the types of changes that occur in dissociative identity disorder. 6. On the basis of research into and debate about the issue of recovered memories, what official position has the Canadian Psychiatric Association taken? a. The mental health profession is in no position to judge the validity of recovered childhood memories of abuse. b. Childhood memories later recovered in adulthood are of questionable reliability and should never be accepted without corroboration. c. There is no evidence whatsoever to support the notion of recovered memories of childhood abuse. d. There is overwhelming evidence to support the validity of recovered childhood memories; thus, they should always be considered valid even if they cannot be objectively verified. 7. Susan, a woman of relatively normal weight, sometimes eats huge quantities of junk food and has no ability to stop herself. She follows this habit with long periods of complete fasting. Based on this information, which of the following is most likely to happen? a. Susan will be diagnosed with bulimia. b. Susan will not be diagnosed with any disorder because she is of normal weight. c. Susan will not be diagnosed with bulimia because she is not purging. d. Susan will be diagnosed with anorexia. 8. The text has identified two subtypes of anorexia nervosa. Which of the following occurs in the restricting type? a. Individuals do not limit caloric intake but engage in excessive exercising and fitness regimes. b. Individuals diet to limit calorie intake. c. Individuals use purging and limit calorie intake. d. Individuals rely on purging. 9. What is the most important and immediate goal in the treatment of an anorexic patient? a. weight gain b. motivation to change c. resuming normal menstrual cycles d. acceptance that there is a problem 10. Which of the following sleep disorders is accurately described? a. parasomnia not getting enough REM sleep b. parasomnia difficulties in getting enough sleep c. dyssomnia sleepwalking and nightmares d. dyssomnia difficulties in getting enough sleep

3 11. What is obstructive sleep apnea characterized by? a. interruption of air flow without cessation of respiratory activity b. central nervous system disorders and trauma c. complete cessation of respiratory activity for brief periods d. interruption of air flow and brief cessation of respiratory activity 12. What is one approach to successfully reducing the frequency of sleep terrors? a. Make sure that the child is very tired before going to bed. b. Wake the child during the attack. c. Make sure the child does not eat one hour before bedtime; diet matters. d. Use scheduled awakenings to briefly awaken the child before an attack occurs. 13. In two twin studies cited in your textbook, it was found that the percentage of monozygotic twins in which both twins are homosexual was 50 percent. Approximately the same, or a slightly lower, percentage of non-twin brothers or sisters was homosexual. What does this pattern of findings suggest? a. The environment determines sexual orientation. b. Genes are not an influence for sexual orientation. c. Genes are only one influence for sexual orientation. d. Homosexuality is determined by genetics. 14. When are sexual arousal disorders most likely to be diagnosed? a. when there is a lack of desire for sex in either men or women b. when there is an inability to achieve or maintain an erection in males and a lack of desire for sex in females c. when there is an inability to achieve or maintain an erection in males and a lack of lubrication in females d. when there is an inability to achieve or maintain an erection in males and a lack of orgasm in females 15. What is the most common of all the male sexual dysfunctions? a. inhibited orgasm b. erectile dysfunction c. premature ejaculation d. sexual aversion 16. Ken often has problems with premature ejaculation. As he becomes more anxious about his problem, what will most likely happen to the amount of time between initiating intercourse and ejaculation? a. It will decrease. b. It will increase. c. It will depend upon what is making him anxious. d. It will depend upon what is causing the premature ejaculation in the first place. 17. What is involved in the sex therapy technique designed specifically to treat premature ejaculation? a. the squeeze technique b. sensate focus c. directed imagery and relaxation exercises d. non-demand pleasuring 18. What does research with both non-incestuous pedophiles and perpetrators of incest (Marshall et al., 1986; Marshall, 1997) suggest? a. Incest is generally influenced by paraphilia, whereas non-incestuous pedophilia may be more opportunistic. b. Both behaviours tend to be motivated by opportunistic individuals rather than by paraphilia. c. Both behaviours tend to be motivated by paraphilia. d. Non-incestuous pedophilia is generally influenced by paraphilia, whereas incest may be more opportunistic. 19. Shannon has been using heroin for two years. Lately, she has found she must inject higher and higher dosages of the drug to get the same "high" she has come to expect from her drug use. What is the term for this need for higher dosages? a. dependence b. potentiation c. addiction d. tolerance 20. What are alcohol and the drugs Seconal, Halcion, and Valium classified as? a. intoxicants b. stimulants c. depressants d. narcotics 21. Sedative, hypnotic, and anxiolytic drugs affect the brain by acting on which of the following neurotransmitter systems? a. serotonin b. GABA c. dopamine d. serotonin and norepinephrine

4 22. What can marijuana use and abuse lead to? a. Psychological dependence even with occasional use. b. Rapid development of tolerance. c. Physiological addiction to tobacco smoke. d. Paranoia and hallucinations. 23. The "pleasure pathways," or internal reward centres, in the human brain are primarily made up of which of the following? a. both dopamine-sensitive and serotonin-sensitive neurons b. serotonin-sensitive neurons c. dopamine-sensitive neurons d. GABA-sensitive neurons 24. According to Sobell and Sobell (1978), which of the following best describes the difference between the abstinence approaches compared to the controlled drinking approach when to treating alcoholism? a. Very few abusers are capable of using alcohol in a controlled manner, whereas the abstinence approach has a very high rate of long-term effectiveness. b. Controlled drinking may be a viable alternative to abstinence but it isn't a cure. c. While some abusers may be able to limit their drinking to normative levels, the abstinence approach is still the most effective treatment for all abusers. d. Controlled drinking is far more effective than the abstinence approach in the long term because it provides at least some relief from cravings. 25. The DSM-IV-TR's Cluster B contains the antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic personality disorders. How are all of these disorders characterized? a. by elevated levels of impulsivity b. by elevated levels of anxiety c. by elevated levels of eccentricity d. by elevated levels of extraversion 26. Individuals who are socially isolated, behave in ways that seem unusual, tend to be suspicious, and have odd beliefs, are generally diagnosed with which of the following personality disorders? a. schizoid personality disorder b. schizotypal personality disorder c. paranoid personality disorder d. narcissistic personality disorder 27. Although psychopathy and antisocial personality disorder are both related to criminality, not everyone with these disorders becomes involved with the legal system. According to one longitudinal study, what factor most likely separates this group from those who get into trouble with the law? a. the capacity for empathy b. early intervention c. supportive parents d. IQ 28. What is involved in the most common treatment strategy for children at risk for antisocial personality disorder? a. medication and intensive psychotherapy b. placing them in supervised foster homes c. behavioural modification d. parent training 29. Why are individuals with narcissistic personality disorder most likely to become depressed? a. because they seldom live up to their unrealistic expectations of themselves b. because they are involved in an endless search for the ideal person who will meet their unfulfilled empathic needs c. because they feel that others don't understand and appreciate them d. because they become upset when their intimate relationships fail 30. Why do individuals with avoidant personality disorder avoid most relationships? a. They are simply not interested in social interaction. b. They are extremely sensitive to the opinions of others and fear rejection. c. They lack normal social skills and are generally rejected by others. d. They experience debilitating anxiety at the thought of embarrassing themselves in front of others. 31. Toward the end of the 19th century, the German psychiatrist Emil Kraeplin used a term to refer to an onset of symptoms that often occurs before adulthood, and what we now call schizophrenia. What was that term? a. folie à deux b. dementia praecox c. adolescent insanity d. hebephrenia

5 32. What is the negative symptom of schizophrenia known as avolition? a. an inability to initiate and persist in activities b. a lack of speech content and/or slowed speech response c. a lack of emotional response and a blank facial expression d. an inability to experience pleasure 33. Callie has been diagnosed with schizoaffective disorder. This means that, in addition to schizophrenic symptoms, what will she also have? a. an anxiety disorder b. a split personality c. obsessive-compulsive disorder d. a mood disorder 34. How is the genetic basis of schizophrenia best understood? a. Schizophrenia is primarily genetically caused. b. Researchers have discovered the gene responsible for causing schizophrenia. c. Genes are responsible for making some individuals vulnerable to schizophrenia. d. Some forms of schizophrenia are influenced by genes; others are not. 35. Brown and colleagues (1962) followed a sample of people who had been discharged from the hospital after an episode of schizophrenic symptoms. What did the researchers find? a. Those who had limited contact with their relatives did worse than patients who spent longer periods with their families. b. If the mothers of the patients had schizophrenia, the patients did better. c. If the mothers of the patients did not have schizophrenia, the patients did better. d. Those who had limited contact with their relatives did better than patients who spent longer periods with their families. 36. Psychosocial "clubs" or "clubhouses" for schizophrenic patients have been formed as a part of some rehabilitation programs. Research indicates that participation in these clubs may help prevent relapses. Why it is difficult to interpret the improvement in these patients? a. Some patients are on medication and some aren't. b. Only the most psychotic patients participated. c. Patients who participate may be significantly different from those who don't. d. A significant number of patients dropped out before completing the program. 37. Valid criticisms of Alcoholics Anonymous by psychologists include: a. It requires people to relinquish control of their drinking to a higher power b. It denies the possibility of controlled drinking, even for people with moderate drinking problems c. AA programs make it difficult to determine their effectiveness (e.g., participation is anonymous) d. All of the above are valid criticisms of AA 38. Cocaine interferes with the ability of the transmitting neuron to collect Dopamine from the synaptic cleft. In technical terms, cocaine interferes with: a. Dopamine resynthesis b. Dopamine reuptake c. Dopamine recovery d. Dopamine retrieval 39. Genetic influences on addiction: a. Tend to be stronger for dependence than use b. Tend to be stronger in men than women c. Both A and B are true d. Neither A nor B are true 40. Co-morbidity of personality disorders: a. Is low b. Is low between clusters and high within clusters c. Is moderate both within and between clusters d. Has not been studied enough to draw firm conclusions 41. Which of the following does not belong? a. Paranoid b. Schizoid c. Schizotypal d. Borderline 42. Which of the following is false about Schizophrenia? a. It is a very rare disease (e.g., much less frequent than Muscular Sclerosis) b. It involves such Negative symptoms as little interest in socializing. c. It involves such Positive symptoms as hallucinations d. Only genetic factors have been linked to an increased risk of Schizophrenia 43. A review of admissions to a psychiatric facility revealed that schizophrenia was more likely to be diagnosed: a. In African Americans than Whites b. In Latinos than Whites c. Both A and B d. Neither A nor B

6 44. High Expressed Emotion: a. Refers to family members being too uninvolved with the lives of relatives with Schizophrenia b. Has been associated with lower relapse rates after treatment for Schizophrenia c. Both A and B d. Neither A nor B 50. One plausible explanation for many sexual fetishes is: a. Innate predisposition toward sexual arousal in presence of object b. Masturbation in presence of actual or imagined object c. The objects of fetishes are clearly erotic in nature d. All of the above 45. Janet has reported that she has no feeling in her entire hand, but Doctors are unable to find any physical explanation. If this turns out to be a psychological disorder, it will probably be classified as: a. Body Dysmorphic Disorder b. Dissociative Disorder c. Conversion Disorder d. Somatization Disorder 46. When men and women were asked about their ideal body weight: a. Women s ideal was considerably less than their perceived current weight b. Men s ideal was about equal to their perceived current weight c. Both A and B are true d. Neither A nor B are true 47. Insomnia is to Nightmares as: a. Hypersomnia is to Dyssomnia b. Dyssomnia is to Sleepwalking c. Dyssomnia is to Parasomnia d. Parasomnia is to Narcolepsy 48. Helen s son Justin was treated by waking him at a certain time each night, and then letting him go back to sleep after about 5 minutes. Justin was probably experiencing: a. Sleepwalking b. Sleep Apnea c. Sleep Terrors d. Restless Leg Syndrome 49. When male and female university students were questioned about their sexual activities: a. Men and Women were very different in many respects b. Men and Women were similar in actual sexual activities, but differed more on imaginal activities c. Men and Women were similar in imaginal sexual activities, but differed more on actual sexual activities d. Men and Women were very similar in both actual and imaginal sexual activities