EHS Benchmark #1-2016 Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. The study of the processes of living organisms, or why and how they work, is. a. anatomy c. pathophysiology b. physiology d. biology 2. The four main groups of tissues are. a. epithelial, bone, blood, and nerve b. nerve, muscle, adipose, and connective c. muscle, nerve, epithelial, bone d. nerve, connective, epithelial, and muscle 3. The tissue that produces power and movement in the body is. a. adipose c. connective b. muscle d. epithelial 4. The tissue that lines the intestinal and respiratory tracts and forms body glands is. a. epithelial c. muscle b. connective d. adipose 5. The horizontal plane that divides the body into a top half and a bottom half is the. a. transverse c. frontal b. midsagittal d. coronal 6. The body plane that divides the body into right and left sides is the. a. transverse c. frontal b. midsagittal d. coronal 7. Body parts in front of the frontal plane are called. a. superior c. ventral or anterior b. inferior d. dorsal or posterior 8. Body parts close to the midsagittal plane are called. a. medial c. proximal b. inferior d. lateral 9. Body parts close to a point of reference are. a. medial c. lateral b. distal d. proximal 10. The body cavity located in the chest is the. a. dorsal cavity c. thoracic cavity b. ventral cavity d. abdominal cavity 11. The body cavity that contains the brain and spinal cord is the. a. spinal cavity c. ventral cavity b. cranial cavity d. dorsal cavity
12. The cavity for the mouth is the. a. cranial cavity c. buccal cavity b. orbital cavity d. ventral cavity 13. The cavity that contains the urinary bladder, reproductive organs, and the last part of the large intestine is the. a. pelvic cavity c. thoracic cavity b. abdominal cavity d. buccal cavity 14. The cavity that contains the heart, lungs, and large blood vessels is the. a. abdominal cavity c. pelvic cavity b. thoracic cavity d. orbital cavity 15. The cavity that contains the eyes is the. a. buccal cavity c. orbital cavity b. ventral cavity d. dorsal cavity 16. Which of the following statements is correct? a. the toes are proximal to the ankles b. the elbow is distal to the wrist c. the nose is medial to the ears d. the knee is lateral to the foot 17. Which of the following kinds of muscle is voluntary? a. cardiac c. visceral b. skeletal d. smooth 18. A tough, sheetlike membrane that covers and protects the tissue is a. a. ligament c. fascia b. tendon d. viscera 19. If the leg is moved out to the side away from the body, the movement is. a. abduction c. flexion b. adduction d. extension 20. If the lower leg is straightened away from the upper leg, the movement is. a. abduction c. flexion b. adduction d. extension 21. Swinging the arm in a circle is an example of. a. abduction c. rotation b. extension d. circumduction 22. A severe tightening of a flexor muscle resulting in bending of a joint is called. a. Muscular Dystrophy c. Fibromyalgia b. Arthritis d. Contracture 23. A group of inherited diseases that lead to chronic, progressive muscle atrophy is. a. myasthenia gravis c. muscular dystrophy b. paralysis d. cerebral palsy
24. A chronic disorder characterized by widespread musculoskeletal pain, fatigue, and tenderness in localized areas is called _. a. Muscular Dystrophy c. Fibromyalgia b. Myasthenia Gravis d. Contracture 25. Which of the following statements does not pertain to taking daily weights on a patient? a. Make sure the patient wears the exact same clothing. b. Make sure the scale is balanced before weighing the patient. c. Use the same scale each day. d. Weigh the patient at the same time each day. 26. Chest circumference may be measured to determine the progression of diseases such as. a. myocardial infarctions or heart attacks b. chronic obstructive pulmonary diseases c. cerebrovascular accidents or strokes d. all of the above 27. The equivalent weight in pounds for 60 kilograms is. a. 90 pounds c. 132 pounds b. 120 pounds d. 186 pounds 28. How many centimeters are in 56 inches? a. 28 centimeters c. 112 centimeters b. 84 centimeters d. 140 centimeters 29. The position used for examination or treatment of the back or spine is. a. horizontal recumbent c. dorsal recumbent b. Sims d. prone 30. Identify the type of vision screening method used to test for nearsightedness. a. Jaeger system c. Ishihara book b. Snellen chart d. Sim s chart 31. While testing visual acuity with a Snellen chart,. a. conduct the test in a room with bright sunlight b. ask the patient to position his/her toes on a taped line 30 feet from the chart c. watch the patient closely to make sure he/she is not squinting d. all of the above
32. While testing vision with a Snellen chart, 20/20 vision means that. a. the patient can read the entire chart at 20 feet b. the patient can read the 20-inch line while standing 20 feet from the chart c. the patient can read 20 different letters while standing 20 feet from the chart d. the patient can see characters 20 millimeters high while standing 20 feet from the chart 33. Which of the following abbreviations indicates both eyes? 34. What test is used to check for hyperopia? a. Ishihara method c. Snellen chart b. Jaeger system d. Trendelenburg chart 35. Which of the following abbreviations indicates the right eye only? 36. Which one is not used as a type of Snellen Chart? a. letter E c. color b. alphabet d. pictures 37. Which of the following abbreviations indicates the left eye only? 38. What test is used to detect defects in color vision? a. Jaeger system c. Ishihara method b. Snellen chart d. Fowler s method 39. If a patient has 20/50 vision, the patient can see figures _ millimeters high while standing _ feet from the chart. a. 20 mm/50 ft c. 50 mm/20 ft b. 20 mm/20 ft d. 50 ft/20 mm 40. The first sign of a pressure ulcer is a/an. a. open sore on the skin b. pale, red or blue-gray discoloration on the skin c. vesicle or blister on the skin d. dark brown bruise on the skin 41. Patients confined to bed should have their position changed at least every. a. 30 minutes c. two hours b. one hour d. three hours 42. The proper term for dizziness is. a. vertigo c. cyanosis b. diaphoresis d. dyspnea 43. The correct term for excessive perspiration is. a. vertigo c. diaphoresis b. dysphagia d. dyspnea
44. Range-of-motion exercises performed by patients who are able to move each joint without assistance are. 45. Range-of-motion exercises administered by another person who moves each joint for a patient who is not able to exercise are. 46. Which of the following is not a principle that should be observed while performing ROM exercises? a. Movements should be slow, smooth, and gentle. b. Each joint should be exercised to the point of pain. c. Support should be provided to the parts above and below the joint being exercised. d. The patient should be encouraged to assist as much as possible. 47. During ROM exercise, each movement should be performed. a. one to two times b. two to three times c. three to five times d. as many times as the patient tolerates 48. The type of ROM that maintains joint function and movement, and helps prevent deformities, but does not strengthen muscles is. 49. The correct term for cold applications is. a. thermotherapy c. cryotherapy b. hypothermia d. hyperthermia 50. You are caring for a patient who is visually impaired and need to measure the patient s vital signs. You should: a. Ask the patient s family to explain what you are going to do to the patient. b. Avoid talking while in the patient s room. c. Announce yourself upon entering the room, introduce yourself, and explain what you will be doing. d. Greet the patient when entering the room and then carry on a non-threatening conversation to put the patient at ease.