Basic Immunology Final Exam

Transcription

1 Instructions: Select the BEST answer from the choices available. Be sure to read all of the alternatives. Make sure to fill in the correct circle completely, and to erase any stray marks on the bubble sheet. 1. In the data shown at the right (taken from the paper about the Tasmanian Devil fatal tumor that was horizontally transmitted, blood lymphocytes from different animals were co-cultured in media supplemented with 3 H-thymidine, and the radioactivity of the insoluble fraction was measured after different incubation periods. What is the significance of the high level of 3 H incorporation when cells were incubated with ConA? a. ConA is a critical media component that ensured that the cells were adhered to the culture dish b. Proliferation in the presence of ConA proved that the culture conditions were able to support proliferative responses. c. ConA is a MAMP that can initiate apoptosis and the release of thymidine from cells d. ConA is the acronym for an opposing (Con) antagonism (A) that stimulates cells 2. In the data from the paper describing the production of llama antibodies from a phage display library, the ELISA data (shown right) was produced after two rounds of Phage display selection in PBS. What does the data show? a. The interaction of antibodies with each other reduces their ability to interact with the target antigen. b. Antibodies are insoluble in shampoo. c. Antibodies can bind to target antigen better in a detergent than they can in saline alone. d. One clone can bind to the target Malf1 protein even in the presence of shampoo, while another clone does not. e. Shampoo enhances all antibody binding events in soluble immunoassay. 1

2 3. Why might an individual be immunodeficient when that individual has a disease of lymphoaccumulation? a. Excessive lympho-accumulation is associated with overproduction of complement. b. Functional lymphocytes would be diluted out by non- or dysfunctional lymphocytes and thus unable to mediate effective immunity. c. Lympho-accumulation would be treated by irradiation that would diminish immune capacity. d. The PRRs of these individuals would be dysfunctional 4. The primary cellular targets of the HIV-1 virus are the: a. CD45 positive cells b. CD8 positive cells c. CD4 positive cells d. CD19 positive cells 5. What evidence shows that transplant tissue rejection is an immunological phenomenon? a. Serum proteins are needed to glue transplanted skin to the graft site b. Transplanted kidneys must be placed in anatomically correct locations for proper function to occur. c. Treatment with injected IL-2 can initiate a cytokine storm d. Prior transplantation with tissue from the same allogeneic source will elicit a second set rejection. 6. What is a critical step in the successful engraftment of transplanted skin? a. Hair regrowth b. The influx of leukocytes specific for the graft antigens c. Extravasation d. Angiogenesis 7. Apoptosis ordinarily serves to prevent the development of an autoimmune response to the dying cells. This is because: a. The apoptosis of macrophages will limit their ability to present antigen b. Apoptotic cell death eliminates the inter-digital tissues in the hands of the fetus c. Apoptosis prevents the release of immunogenic intracellular antigens that would promote inflammation. d. Antibodies to the Fas ligand and receptor are formed e. Necrosis follows the apoptotic process 2

3 8. HIV is an RNA virus. The HIV genome encodes the formation of which of these proteins? a. GP120 b. GP120 antibody c. CCR5 d. CXCR4 e. Both a and c 9. A patient with a MHC class II deficiency (an example is the Bare Lymphocyte syndrome): a. Will experience decreased viral susceptibility b. Will have an excess of activated complement that binds to MHC class II + cells c. Will experience declines in Th/APC interactions and a resulting immunodeficiency d. Will develop an autoimmune disease called Bare Lymphocyte Adenopathy (BLA) e. Will have decreased insulin levels 10. Antibody-drug conjugates are valuable therapeutics for the treatment of cancer because: a. They kill antibody producing cells b. They can specifically target tumor antigen-expressing cells, reducing the necessary concentration of toxin to be used. c. They are less expensive than conventional antibodies d. They do not bind neoplastic cells. 11. Direct cytotoxicity caused by antibody and complement-mediated membrane attack complex formation is an example of what immune activity? a. Type I hypersensitivity b. Type II hypersensitivity c. Type III hypersensitivity d. Type IV hypersensitivity e. Type IV hypersensitivity 12. Tasmanian devils can horizontally transmit an oral tumor from one devil to another through bites. The cellular exchange from the donor devil successfully grows in the recipient devil due to: a. The composition of Tasmanian devil DNA, which allows for tumor DNA to easily be transmitted into the recipient devil. b. The bites on the face of the devils increases the likelihood of infection, and often the uptake of the virus that transmits the cancer c. The genetic predisposition of Tasmanian devils to cancer d. The limited MHC polymorphism in Tasmanian devils e. Both B and C 3

4 13. One component of the treatment for HIV infection is: a. Kinase inhibitors b. Protease inhibitors c. Phosphatase inhibitors d. Catalase inhibitors e. Peroxidase inhibitors 14. Proto-oncogenes are: a. Mutations in the genes for immunoglobulins b. The normal forms of genes that can mutate in ways that elicit cancer formation c. The prototypes of CD45 molecules d. The genes found in early evolution that produce the complement-like proteins 15. There are naturally occurring camel and llama antibodies that are: a. Covalently bound to Ricin A and B chains b. Single chain antibodies c. Able to differentiate structures at a sub-atomic level d. Able to withstand elevated temperatures and other denaturing conditions e. Naturally found in shampoos 16. Neoplasia requires that cells develop the capacity to exceed the Hayflick limit. One way to do this is by increasing the level of an enzyme that maintains chromosome stability. This enzyme is a. Caspase b. Aspartame c. Telomerase d. Invertase e. DNAse 17. A number of specific mutations can cause primary immunodeficiencies in mice and humans. One example in humans specifically leads to a defect in the normal development of the thymus and produces an immunodeficiency similar to the nude mouse. The resulting phenotype is a defect in T cell maturation and subsequently T-dependent acquired immunity. This mutation in humans is commonly called: a. DiGeorge syndrome b. Chediak-Higashi syndrome c. SCID d. albino e. Wiscott-Aldrich syndrome 4

5 18. Ricin is a product of the castor bean plant that can kill cells: a. By the effect of Ricin B subunit to activate the membrane attack complex of the complement cascade b. By the effect of the lethal factor encoded by a plasmid c. By the activation of CTL specific for the Ricin B bound to the plasma membrane d. By the change in osmotic pressure when the cells are put in saline solution e. By interfering with ribosomal function 19. The goal of conjugating radionuclides such as 131 I (Iodine-131) to anti-tumor antibodies is to: a. Irradiate the tumor and selectively kill those tumor cells in the patient's body b. Chemically change the antibodies to make them less stable c. Enhance the complement cascade by radiation-induced mutations of the C3b component d. Produce toxic radioactive decay products to poison the tumor cells (a-d) 20. The practical problem with using injections of IL-2 cytokine to stimulate an anti-cancer response is that: a. It is impossible to inject IL-2 because it provokes antibody responses b. It is too expensive to produce enough cytokine c. It stimulates complement activation d. It can provoke a systemic cytokine storm e. It induces global apoptosis 21. One of the major findings of the paper describing Metallothionein s (MT) effect on collagen induce arthritis (CIA) was: a. Administration of MT increased the arthritic index in CIA mouse model. b. MT caused an increase in expression of pro-inflammatory cytokines like TNF α. c. MT had no effect on the progression of arthritis in CIA mouse model. d. MT stimulated the expression of TGF-β (anti-inflammatory) in a mouse model of CIA mouse. e. Both a and d 22. Which of the following immune responses would be impaired in a nude mouse (athymic)? a. Cell mediated immune response b. Delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction c. Killing of virus-infected cells d. Graft rejection 5

6 23. Agents that cause mutation are often carcinogens. Why? a. Mutations in a gene responsible for cell cycle regulation can increase the rate of secondary mutations in the cells b. Mutations in a gene responsible for chromosome length and stability can extend the survival of that clone of mutated cells. c. Mutations can eliminate a cell s sensitivity to contact inhibition signals d. All of the above 24. The demonstration that there was little polymorphism in the Tasmanian devil population included what measurements? a. Measurements of size and weight to show there was little difference between devils b. Assessment of the allotypes of antibodies in individual devils to show that they were the same c. 2-way Mixed lymphocyte reactions to show devil similarity d. Sequencing of the T cell receptors of Tasmanian devils showed a single Vb chain e. Demonstration that there was no agglutination of one devil s blood with another devil s serum 25. Which of the following is generally NOT commonly employed to detect an active HIV infection or previous exposure to the HIV virus? a. Western blot for GP120 viral antigen b. Flow cytometry c. ELISA for GP120 viral antigen d. ELISA for serum anti-gp120 antibodies e. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) 26. Teratocarcinomas have cells that are part of many different cell lineages as well as cells that can act as stem cells. How will these E.C. stem cells behave when injected into a blastocyst? a. They will produce more teratocarcinomas. b. They will initiate an allograft rejection if they are derived from a strain different from the recipient blastocyst. c. They will differentiate along normal pathways and will become normal tissue cells of the chimeric offspring. d. They will mutate and cause a new tumor to form. 27. Anti-idiotypic treatments can be used to stimulate: a. The formation of an immune response to a tumor antigenic shape that is similar to the shape of the cognate idiotype b. The abnormal rearrangement of the immunoglobulin gene complex c. Angiogenesis d. Global decreases in IgG isotype production 6

7 28. When a normal regulatory gene that promotes cell growth is mutated or damaged, it may become a/an: a. growth factor b. oncogene c. tumor suppressor gene d. proto-oncogene e. antigen 29. The molecule(s) that is (are) usually responsible for rejections of skin allografts are: a. MHC class I molecules b. MHC class III molecules c. MHC class II molecules d. Both a and b e. Both a and c 30. Which of the choices shown below correctly completes the following statement? Allografts are grafts transplanted: a. Between genetically different individuals of the same species b. Between genetically identical individuals of the same species c. In the same individual, i.e., the donor is the recipient. d. Between individuals of different species. e. Between different organisms. 31. Severe Combined Immunodeficient (SCID) mice can have a defect(s) in: a. B cell function b. T cell function c. RAG-1/RAG-2 genes d. All of the above e. B and C only 32. Which of these molecules can be a cofactor for the membrane interactions of HIV with a target cell? a. Clotting factors b. CCR5 c. CD28 d. TcR e. Both A and B 33. Nucleoside inhibitors: a. Block DNA synthesis in B cells only, causing apoptosis and stop the budding of the HIV virus b. Block DNA synthesis in T cells only, causing apoptosis and stop the budding of the HIV virus c. Prevent immature viral particles from budding from the surface of infected T cells d. Binds to GP120 to prevent fusion and subsequent infection with another cell e. Interfere with the ability of the retrovirus to convert its RNA to DNA 7

8 34. What is the main conclusion that can be drawn from the Tasmanian devil tumor paper? a. Tumors are potentially infectious in humans b. The viral protein that serves as the immunogen in the Tasmanian devil is called Malf1 c. MHC polymorphisms can protect against infectious allogeneic tumors d. Tasmanian devil tumors would be a good model for human disease are the main conclusions 35. Humanized mice are produced by injecting NOD, SCID, gamma common chain receptor defective ( NSG mice) with human immune cells. This animal model is valuable because: a. The mouse will accept transplants easily, and the immune system can be reconstituted with human hematopoietic stem cells b. The mouse immune system is weak, the mouse gets very sick and it allows for the study of many infectious diseases c. SiRNA will not be rejected by the mouse so scientists can easily study RNA viruses like HIV d. The mice are highly susceptible to HIV and not to other viruses, which allows for simplified study of HIV 36. Proto-oncogenes are: a. Always Kinases b. Tend to disrupt different parts of the signaling cascade c. Are only turned on during transplantation d. Are always extensively up-regulated during transplantation 37. Hayflick s limit: a. Indicates the number of times cells can divide before cellular death b. Is invoked by cells infected with virus. c. Develops because telomeres shorten and cells become unstable d. Both A and C 38. Tumors avoid immune attack by: a. Secreting tumor antigens into the surrounding extracellular spaces b. Decreasing MHC class I antigen expression c. Secreting immunosuppressive cytokines d. All of the above 8

9 39. The structure of the stress response protein metallothionein (MT) is unique because of the high frequency of which thiol containing amino acid? a. Serine b. Threonine c. Tyrosine d. Methionine e. Cysteine 40. Genome Wide Associational Studies (GWAS) can be used to address which of the following experimental questions? a. What are the loci associated with risk for the onset of Type 1 diabetes? b. What are the mechanisms of transformation that a carcinogen employs to produce lung cancer? c. What is the effect of a CD28 mutation on CTL cell mediated cytotoxicity? d. What cytokines are overexpressed in individuals that have inflammatory bowel disease? 41. What is the cause of hyperacute graft rejection? a. A faster chemotactic response due to more rapid cell movement b. An accelerated response due to pre-existing antibodies to the donor tissue c. A faster production of the capillaries that carry cells to the grafted tissue d. A more accelerated complement cascade 42. A genetic mutation in which of the following genes could lead to lymphocyte accumulation and enlargement of secondary lymphoid tissues? a. lpr (Fas) b. gld (Fas ligand) c. Rag 1 (recombinase activating gene) d. lyst (lysosomal trafficking regulator) e. A and B 43. Graft versus host disease results from: a. donor immune cells that attack the host tissue and simultaneously provide nonspecific activation of host leukocytes b. engrafted skin tissue hyperproliferation and tumorigenesis c. the response of the host to the grafted tissue d. all of the above e. none of the above 9

10 44. Which of the following biological ratios is affected by HIV infection and is commonly used to monitor disease progression in AIDS patients? a. IgG / IgM b. Basophils / Eosinophils c. CD4 T cells / CD8 T cells d. TH1 / TH2 e. IFN-gamma / IL Which of the following are examples of beneficial autoimmune reactions? a. Generation of anti-idiotype antibodies to limit the antibody response to antigen b. Negative selection of autoreactive T cells during development in the thymus c. Positive selection of T cells with functional T cell receptors in the thymus during development d. CTL mediated anti-tumor immunity 46. The relationship between the rate of mutagenesis and carcinogenesis induced by a compound can usually be described as: a. linear and negative: the higher the mutagenic potential, the lower it s ability to induce tumors b. exponential: small increases in mutagenicity correspond to large increases carcinogenicity c. Linear and positive: increases in the mutagenic potential of a compound correlate with proportional increases in its carcinogenic potential d. Static: mutagenicity of a substance remains the same regardless of how carcinogenic it is e. There is no predictable relationship between a compound s mutagenicity and carcinogenicity 47. How would you minimize allograft rejection while performing a skin grafts between two mice from different inbred strains? If you could only reduce the function of one cell type with an injected monoclonal antibody in order to increase graft acceptance, which cell type would you choose to target? a. CD8 T cells b. CD4, CD8 double positive T cells c. Neutrophils d. CD4 T cells e. Macrophages 48. Which HIV protein is responsible for the conversion of the viral RNA into DNA? a. Reverse transcriptase b. Integrase c. Invertase d. Protease e. GP120 10

11 49. Down-regulation of CCR5 is potentially valuable in the treatment of HIV infection because a. it reduces the efficiency of viral replication by slowing viral uptake by target cells b. it makes cells move more slowly in an infectious environment c. it increases the production of chemokines that stimulate cell movement d. it activates complement mediated lysis of virally infected cells e. it renders the animal more susceptible to viral infections 50. Antigens that bind both MHCs and T cells, without binding in the MHC binding cleft are called super antigens. They can cause: a. Non-specific T cell activation b. increased non-specific antibody production c. A decrease in MHC, and therefore cell death by cytotoxic T cells. d. Degranulation of chronically activated T cells, resulting in a hypersensitivity e. Cellular necrosis Extra Credit 2pt Questions from Exam What kinds of epitope prediction would be most useful in designing a vaccine against an extracellular bacterial pathogen? a. A T cell epitope b. A small hapten epitope c. A B cell epitope d. A macrophage-specific epitope 52. Pattern recognition receptors (PRRs) are important in the following processes: a. Adaptive immunity b. Cytotoxic T Lymphocyte killing c. The response to microbe-associated molecular patterns (MAMPs) d. B and C are correct are true 11