Questions for Posters #1-19:

Transcription

1 POSTER #1: Questions for Posters #1-19: 1. Bacterial load in urine samples was performed by assessing: a. Copy numbers of 16s RNA sequences of bacteria b. Copy numbers of whole genome sequencing of bacteria c. Assessment is not necessary since urine is always sterile 2. In this study, antibiotic prophylaxis: a. Wiped out all harmful bacteria while leaving only normal flora behind b. Increased overall bacterial loads in urine samples c. Had no effect 3. Sequencing results were obtained using: a. RTqPCR b. Sanger sequencing c. Next generation sequencing POSTER #2: 1. Testing methods included: a. Gradient diffusion, disc diffusion, PBP2a detection, and modified carbapenem inactivation b. Gradient diffusion, disc diffusion, microdilution, modified carbapenem inactivation, and Sanger sequencing c. Gradient diffusion, disc diffusion, microdilution, modified carbapenem inactivation, and DNA microarray 2. Fosfomycin was shown to have greater activity against CP-CRE compared to non-cp-cre 3. CP-CRE stands for: a. Carbapenemase-producing carbapenem-resistant Enterobacteriaceae b. Carbapenemase-producing carbapenem-resistant Enterococcus c. Carbapenem-producing carbapenemase-resistant Enterobacteriaceae POSTER #3: 1. Colistin resistance mechanism includes a. production of the PBP2a binding protein b. modification to lipid A by chromosomal and plasmid-mediated approaches (mcr genes) C. macrolide efflux 2. Isolates with an MIC 4 µg/ml to colistin are considered to be negative for the mcr genes.

2 3. Colistin MICs were read after POSTER #4: a. 4-hour incubation b. 6 hour incubation c hour incubation 1. Which of the following is NOT a proposed factor in checkpoint blockade immunotherapy efficacy? a. Cancer mutational burden b. Patient microbiome c. Stage and grade of cancer d. Location of tumors 2. This pilot experiment was designed to test all of the following parameters EXCEPT: a. Optimal time for gut colonization b. Differences in immune response to tumor c. Response to checkpoint blockade therapy d. Differences in tumor growth 3. The cancer cell line used in this pilot is an aggressive, metastatic tumor cell line. a. Colorectal cancer b. Lymphoma c. Lung cancer d. Melanoma POSTER #5: 1. The 8 action steps for this study were a. Think, define, meet, discuss, consent, cooperate, collaborate, and feedback b. Think, decide, meet, define, consent, cooperate, collect information, and feedback c. Think, define, measure, discuss, consent, cooperate, collaborate, and seek information 2. One purpose of a rapid autopsy is to evaluate the efficacy of cancer treatments 3. The limiting factor for rapid autopsies is a. Number of tissue sources that can be collected b. Coordination of efforts across disciplines to achieve rapid results c. Time

3 POSTER #6: 1. Testing by the GenePOC CDiff test required how much unformed stool? a. 5 ml b. 5 μl c. 5 L 2. The GenePOC assay was compared to a. Real-time polymerase chain reaction to detect tcdb of toxigenic C. difficile b. Recovery by standard stool culture c. Toxigenic culture and the BD MAX Cdiff assay 3. Compared to the BD MAX Cdiff assay, the GenePOC assay had a specificity of a. 100% b. 95.5% c. 69.6% POSTER #7: 1. The majority of journal articles studied were from the following discipline: a. Urology b. Oncology c. Pathology 2. The most frequently used classification for grouping GS is the D Amico 3. Which statement is most accurate according to the authors of this poster? a. Articles lacking a pathologist author used closer to ideal groupings b. Articles with student authors used closer to ideal groupings c. Articles with a pathologist author used closer to ideal groupings POSTER #8: 1. Which statement is true? a. All genotyping assays are able to detect HCV recombinant variants b. Only genotyping assays targeting 5 UTR, Core/E1, or NS5 sequences are able to detect HCV recombinant variants c. Genotyping assays targeting 5 UTR, Core/E1, or NS5 sequences are not able to detect HCV recombinant variants 2. In the recombinant HCV genome crossover was found: a. At the NS2/NS3 junction at or near nucleotide 11,445 b. At thens2/ns3 junction at or near nucleotide 3,345 c. At thegt2 to Gt1 junction at or near nucleotide 3,345

4 3. Individuals with a recombinant version of HCV may be easily inaccurately genotyped leading to increased virologic relapse and decreased treatment efficacy when treated with Gt2-specific, Gt1-specific, or pan-genotypic regimens POSTER #9: 1. The purpose of the saponin step is to a. Deplete host DNA in order to better recover microbial DNA b. Deplete microbial DNA in order to better recover host DNA c. decrease the number of reads due to possible contamination 2. Analysis of Next Generation Sequencing data is very simple 3. Kraken and Pavian are a. programs that can be used to help analyze next generation sequencing data b. programs necessary to run the assay c. programs that will do all the next generation sequencing data analysis for you without any user intervention or input Poster #10: 1. How many infectious units would have been missed due to false negative test results? a. 231 b. 321 c In this poster, what does RDT stand for? a. Rapid Diagnostic Test b. Regional Detailed Test c. Radioactive Diagnostic Test 3. Based on the Map of the Whole Blood Collections/100,000 Population on this poster, how many collections do the USA and Australia have? a b c. 30 Poster #11: 1. How long does AABB state that cryoprecipitate is good for? a. 1-2 hours b. 4-6 hours c. 24 hours d. 5 days

5 2. At 120 hours, how many pooled cryoprecipiate tested met the AABB required fibrinogen levels? a. 0 b. 5 c. 10 d What organism was identified from the culture of one of the 80 bags of pooled cryoprecipitate? a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Escherichia coli c. Staphylococcus epidermidis d. Yersinia pestis Poster #12: 1. What Streptococcus are included in the non-group A Streptococcus group in this poster? a. GBS (Gr. B Streptococcus) b. GCS (Gr. C Streptococcus) c. GGS (Gr. G Streptococcus) d. All of the above 2. Based on Figure 1, what relative risk ratio of clinical characteristics seem to occur more with GBS than GAS? a. Diabetes b. Oral abscesses c. Throat erythema 3. Which of the following non-group A Streptococcus present with symptoms indicative of viral respiratory tract infections? a. GCS b. GBS c. GGS Poster #13: 1. Based on this poster, what multi-drug resistant organisms should Colistin only be used for? a. Acinetobacter b. MRSA c. Pseudomonas d. A and C 2. At what concentration of EDTA did this poster find was sufficient to reduce the MIC of colistin? a. 1 mm b. 2mM c. 3 mm 3. In Table 3 of the poster, which column consistently shows the lowest MIC values in MCR-1 isolates? a. Macrobroth Dilution

6 Poster #14: b. Microbroth Dilution COL c. Microbroth Dilution POLB d. CPDE Elution e. CBDE with EDTA 1. Which ankryin-like (ank) is critical for late expression of MVA in non-permissive mammalian cells? a. 65KD b. 68 KD c. 63 KD 2. What type of cells were infected with MVA or 186 virus? a. RHMK b. AGMK c. HeLa 3. According to the poster, what homologous gene deletion did not cause similar defects of the VACV as 186R? a. B18R b. B17R c. B19R Poster #15: 1. How many pathogens does the FilmArray system detect? a. 20 b. 22 c What is one disadvantage of this assay in Uganda? a. It is unable to detect non-kpc carbapenemases. b. It is a multiplex assay. c. It is able to identify polymicrobial growth. 3. Which of the following where admission diagnosis from the patients in the study? a. Breast cancer b. Prostate cancer c. Stomach cancer d. All of the above Poster #16: 1. What Staphylococcus species is not included in the Staphylococcus intermedius group (SIG)? a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Staphylococcus pseudintermedius c. Staphylococcus delphini 2. What automated systems were compared in this poster?

7 a. MicroScan WalkAway b. BD Phoenix c. Vitek 2 d. All of the above 3. Which of the following is NOT a key finding from this poster? a. No isolate was misidentified as S. aureus. b. All of the systems were able to identify S. delphini to the species level. c. Staphylococcus haemolyticus was identified as a species other than SIG. Poster #17: 1. What has initiated the over the counter DNA-related health and beauty products? a. The Human Genome Project. b. Ads on television. c. The FDA 2. What are case studies that were included in this poster? a. Customized dietary supplements based on gene sequencing. b. Skin creams utilizing DNA repair enzyme technology. c. DNA-supporting dietary formulations. d. All of the above. e. None of the above. 3. Which of the following is NOT a finding of this poster? a. Consumers enjoy the idea of controlling their health and beauty regimens. b. DNA sequencing and DNA targeting appeals to the idea of personalizing healthcare. c. All of these products did what they said they would. Poster # 18: 1. What factors does thrombin activate which promote clot formation? a. FXIII b. FV c. FVIII d. All of the above 2. What conclusion was NOT drawn from this poster? a. Micro particles and PF 1+2 were independent of each other. b. There was an observed correlation between thrombin generation and PF 1+2. c. In patients with HIV-1, markers of thrombin generation are elevated. 3. What cells release microparticles? a. Monocytes and platelets. b. Red blood cells. c. Eosinophils. Poster # 19: 1. What blood cells were NOT analyzed in this poster?

8 a. T- and B-cells b. C-cells c. NK cells 2. What race had the highest % of participants in this study? a. Caucasian b. African American c. Other 3. Which of the following were a finding from this study? a. The rates of T (CD4+ and CD8+) and B and NK cells were relatively stable throughout adult life. b. Individuals have large variations between their number of lymphocytes. c. CMV infection did not appear to influence rates of change in the lymphocyte numbers. d. All of the above.