Choose three of the 6 Essay questions below. Each question is worth 20 points. (Total 60 points)

Transcription

1 Knowledge Inventory #3 DUE: December 1 or December 8, 2013 To Assignment Folder Covers chapters 6, 7, 8, 9, 11, and 12 Answer each question to the best of your ability and in your own words. Please do not leave any question unanswered. USE ANSWER SHEET document available in conference. DO NOT SUBMIT THIS DOCUMENT TO YOUR ASSIGNMENT FOLDER. Choose three of the 6 Essay questions below. Each question is worth 20 points. (Total 60 points) There are 40 Multiple Choice Questions and each question is worth 1 point. (Total 40 points) Total Points = 100 points You should begin work on these questions as soon as possible because certain questions require additional research and reading. 1. Select a sensory system and discuss the following: a. Describe the stimulus for that system physical features of it b. Describe the receptor types and which features of the stimulus activate each receptor type c. Select one receptor type and discuss how signal transduction occurs for that receptor type 2. As you know, ions are the basis of neuronal activity and neuronal information flow. Think about what you have learned about sleep waves and EEG waves. Since ions are the basis of neuronal activity, explain how sleep waves and EEG waves represent ion flow in the brain. That is, what is the ionic basis for EEG or sleep waves? Explain how EEG recordings are made and what they represent. 3. Select two neurotransmitters or chemical molecules implicated in sleep and discuss their role in sleep and wakefulness. 4. Sex hormones and reproductive-related neurotransmitters/neuromodulators have organizational and activational effects. Select two chemicals and discuss their roles in organizational and activational effects. Be sure you have clearly differentiated activational effects and organizational effects.

2 5. Discuss the role of two peptides or hormones in the control of hunger and satiety. Indicate where these chemicals are located in the CNS and be specific about their role in ingestive behavior (eating and satiety). 6. Give an example of classical conditioning that has occurred in your experience. Define which element is the conditional stimulus, which is the unconditional stimulus, what the unconditional response is (if any), and what the conditional response is. Describe how the relationship between the conditional stimulus and the conditional response developed over time and with repeated pairings. Multiple Choice Section PLACE ALL ANSWERS IN ANSWERSHEET DOCUMENT 1. Sensory receptors are specialized for the A) detection of physical stimuli. B) induction of movement of a limb. C) detection of specific chemicals released from other neurons. D) detection of internal but not external stimuli. E) All of the above are correct. 2. Which of the following is true of the process of sensory transduction? A) Receptors show action potentials to external stimuli. B) The intensity of an external stimulus is related to the firing rate of the receptor. C) Receptors convert an external energy into graded changes in receptor membrane potential. D) Most receptors show an action potential when stimulated with an external stimulus. E) Transduction refers to the speed at which a sensory message travels toward the brain. 3. The physical stimulus for human vision is A) infrared radiation with a wavelength between 760 and 790 nanometers. B) all wavelengths of light. C) ultraviolet radiation with a wavelength of nanometers. D) electromagnetic radiation with a wavelength between 380 and 760 nanometers. E) electromagnetic radiation with a wavelength between 100 and 400 meters. 4. The intensity of a light stimulus corresponds to A) brightness. B) saturation. C) hue. D) color. E) threshold. 5. The function of the pupil is to A) control the amount of light that enters the eye. B) control eye movements as one tracks a moving object. C) focus light onto the retina. D) invert the visual image on the retina. E) amplify the intensity of light that is passed through the vitreous humor.

3 6. The reason for a "blind spot" in the visual field is that A) rods are less sensitive to light than are cones. B) blood vessels collect together and enter the eye at the blind spot. C) the lens cannot focus all of the visual field onto the retina. D) retinal cells die with age and overuse, resulting in blind spots. E) there are no photoreceptors in the retina where the axons exit the eye. 7. The optic nerve is formed by axons that arise from the retinal cells. A) ganglion B) photoreceptor C) horizontal D) amacrine E) bipolar 8. Photopigments are molecules that consist of A) two peptides and a sugar molecule. B) an opsin and a retinal. C) a steroid ring. D) two fatty acid chains. E) a carbon ring and a phenyl ring. 9. The manner in which visual information is carried from the retina to the cortex results in A) information from the temporal ganglion cells projecting to the opposite hemisphere. B) information from the nasal ganglion cells projecting to the ipsilateral hemisphere. C) information from one side of the visual field being transmitted to the opposite hemisphere. D) visual information remaining on the same side of the brain from retina to cortex. E) information from each retina directly reaching both sides of the visual cortex. 10. Select the correct sequence for processing of information in the primary visual pathway. A) retina - > dorsal lateral geniculate (DLG) -> striate cortex B) retina -> striate cortex -> extrastriate cortex -> inferior temporal cortex C) retina -> DLG -> inferior temporal cortex -> amygdala D) DLG -> retina -> striate cortex -> primary visual cortex E) DLG-> frontal cortex -> amygdala -> extrastriate cortex 11. A microelectrode is inserted into a neuron within the primate visual system. Various stimuli are presented to the eyes and changes in firing rate are recorded from this visual system neuron. The part of the visual field to which a neuron responds is termed the A) magnocellular visual system. B) parvocellular visual system. C) striate response field. D) tuning curve. E) receptive field. 12. A person who suffers from protanopia would be said to A) have poor visual acuity. B) confuse yellow with blue. C) lack "blue" cones.

4 D) have "red" cones filled with "green" photopigment. E) perceive a blue sky as green in color. 13. The inability to perceive or identify a stimulus via a particular sensory modality is A) agnosia. B) prosopagnosia. C) insomnia. D) aphagia. E) amnesia. 14. Prosopagnosia is A) an inability to distinguish colors. B) the inability to recognize a particular face. C) usually accompanied by achromatopsia. D) a difficulty in recognizing objects by texture cues. E) a problem in linking remote memories with new memories. 15. Humans can detect sound vibrations between and cycles per second. A) 30; 700 B) 25; 4,000 C) 30; 20,000 D) 25; 9,000 E) 300; 45, ) Which of the following pairs of terms do NOT belong together? A) amplitude; pitch B) complexity; timbre C) frequency; pitch D) amplitude; loudness E) hue; wavelength 17. Sound waves induce movements of the hair cells of the organ of Corti via A) movement of the basilar membrane relative to the tectorial membrane. B) movement of the scala tympani. C) movement of the malleus against the round window. D) movement of the stapes against the round window. E) contraction of the muscle fibers within the middle ear. 18. Indicate which of the following is the correct pathway by which auditory information flows to the brain. A) auditory nerve -> superior olivary nuclei -> medial geniculate -> superior colliculus -> auditory cortex B) auditory nerve -> cochlear nuclei -> medial geniculate -> auditory cortex C) auditory nerve -> cochlear nuclei -> superior olivary nuclei -> inferior colliculus medial geniculate -> auditory cortex D) auditory nerve -> cochlear nuclei -> superior olivary nuclei -> medial geniculate -> auditory cortex E) auditory nerve -> cochlear nuclei -> superior colliculus -> lateral geniculate -> auditory cortex 19. Cochlear implants restore the ability to understand speech by A) changing the overall rate of firing of cochlear cells. B) allowing pressure changes to occur within the cochlea. C) opening a larger aperture within the round window. D) electrically stimulating different regions of the basilar membrane.

5 E) electrically stimulating the 8th cranial nerve at greater than 500 pulses per second. 20. The hair cells of the cochlea and those of the vestibular sacs are similar in that A) hair cells in each system are activated by a shearing force exerted on the cilia. B) each hair cell in each system contains one cilium. C) hair cell activation is accompanied by the closing of membrane ion channels. D) each ciliary membrane is hyperpolarized by movement of the cilia. E) Hair cells in each system are replaced weekly The somatosenses include all but the A) receptors positioned within the skin. B) stretch receptors in skeletal muscle. C) receptors located within limb joints. D) hair cells within the cochlea. E) free nerve endings in the skin. 22. Match up the cutaneous stimulus with the correct perception. A) skin deformation; sensation of pressure B) tissue damage; perception of cold C) tissue damage; sensation of pressure D) vibration; perception of heat E) vibration; sensation of pressure 23. The function of a nociceptor is to detect A) noxious stimuli. B) cold. C) heat. D) salt in a food. E) the bitterness of a fluid. 24. The long-term emotional component of chronic pain is mediated by pathways that A) involve the hypothalamus. B) project from the spinal cord to the primary somatosensory cortex. C) reach the anterior cingulate cortex and the insular cortex. D) project to the prefrontal cortex. E) reach the parietal cortex. 25. Which of the following is true of taste? A) Flavor is a mixture of olfaction and gustation. B) Taste is a mixture of olfaction and gustation. C) Flavor is solely determined by the smell of food. D) Tigers and leopards avidly consume sugar. E) Flavor is determined by air temperature. 26. Stages of sleep are easily distinguished by A) changes in respiration. B) the quality and quantity of dreams. C) changes in the electrical activity of the brain. D) changes in consciousness. E) changes in motor movements. 27. All of the following are characteristics of REM sleep EXCEPT A) alternating delta and beta EEG activities.

6 B) loss of muscle tonus. C) presence of beta wave EEG activity. D) occasional twitching. E) rapid eye movements. 28. Sleep stages 1 4 are termed, whereas stages 3 4 are referred to as. A) REM sleep; non-rem sleep B) non-rem sleep; slow-wave sleep C) slow-wave sleep; non-rem sleep D) paradoxical sleep; REM sleep E) arrhythmic sleep; paradoxical sleep 29. A full day of physical exercise would be expected to A) produce insomnia. B) reduce the amplitude of delta activity in the frontal lobes. C) increase the amount of time spent that night in slow-wave sleep. D) increase the need for REM sleep. E) increase the amount of time spent dreaming. 30. Which of the following findings support the memory consolidation theory of REM sleep? A) Deprivation of REM sleep results in poor learning in rats. B) Active phases of brain development are associated with low levels of REM sleep. C) Slow-wave sleep deprivation results in poor learning in rats. D) Training in a complex maze reduces time spent in REM sleep. E) REM sleep time is increased in retarded children relative to normal children. 31. Caffeine promotes wakefulness because it is a(n) A) adenosine antagonist. B) adenosine agonist. C) GABA antagonist. D) GABA agonist. E) norepinephrine antagonist. 32. Which biological factor below is required to form the ovaries? A) the Y chromosome. B) the Sry gene C) the X chromosome D) testosterone E) No factor is required. 33. An example of an activational effect of the hormone estradiol is A) growth of the uterine lining during the menstrual cycle. B) maturation of the ovaries. C) differentiation of the Wolffian system into the fimbriae, Fallopian tubes, uterus, and vagina. D) growth of auxiliary hair in females. E) alteration of the vocal cords to create a "deep" voice. 34. The difference between an organizational hormone effect and an activational hormone effect is that A) organizational effects only occur in the brain. B) organizational effects are permanent. C) organizational effects only occur during adulthood.

7 D) activational effects are mediated by receptors, whereas organizational effects are due to changes in neurotransmitter secretion. E) activational effects are permanent. 35. The prenatal development of the internal reproductive structures of the male requires A) suppression of the Müllerian system by anti-müllerian hormone. B) secretion of estradiol by the pituitary. C) secretion of progesterone D) secretion of estradiol. E) A and D are correct. 36. Which of the following events takes place at the onset of puberty to start sexual maturation? A) LH and FSH are released from the gonads. B) Estradiol and testosterone are released by the gonads. C) The pituitary secretes gonadotropin-releasing hormones. D) The ovaries and testes release gonadotropic hormones. E) Sexual maturation is not a hormonally dependent process. 37. The growth of pubic and auxiliary hair in male and female humans is promoted by A) androgens secreted from the adrenal cortex. B) corticosterone. C) estrogens secreted from the adrenal cortex. D) progesterone. E) leptin. 38. Ghrelin is a neuropeptide secreted from the that functions to. A) stomach; initiate eating B) pancreas; inhibit eating C) liver; suppress insulin secretion D) duodenum; control CCK levels in the plasma E) PVN; inhibit eating 39. Insulin in the blood appears to be interpreted by the brain as A) a hunger signal. B) an indicator of the entry of fat into the duodenum. C) an indicator that the body is in the absorptive phase of metabolism. D) a satiety signal. E) a signal that the body requires food. 40. In classical conditioning, a neutral stimulus A) becomes inactive over repeated presentations. B) reliably produces a response. C) is termed the unconditional stimulus. D) must always be presented after the unconditional stimulus. E) is paired repeatedly with a stimulus that evokes a reflexive response.