SPT1 Module 1 Questions

Transcription

1 SPT1 Module 1 Questions Clinical Reasoning 1) Which of the following statements is incorrect A. Diagnostic reasoning is the formation of a diagnosis based purely on physical disability and impairment. B. narrative reasoning involves good communication and understanding of a patient s story C. interactive reasoning establishes therapist-patient rapport D. envisioning future scenarios with patients is a form of predictive reasoning 2) Which statement is incorrect? A. Clinical reasoning is important in the physiotherapy profession as a characteristic of autonomous practice B. Clinical reasoning refers to the thinking and decision-making processes that clinicians use C. The hypothetico-deductive model of reasoning is the only model used in physiotherapy practice D. Communicative approaches to collaboration shift the power to the patient 3) Which of the following statements about experts is not necessarily true? A. They are the more senior physiotherapists B. They have superior pattern recognition skills C. They have excellent reasoning strategies. D. They have good recall of meaningful information Joint Concepts McKenzie Approach 4) Research has found that the evaluation of centralising is a clinical setting has a good reliability. 5) Choose the correct answer/s. If centralisation was achieved in assessment it was associated with. A. Less yellow flag indicators B. Good/excellent overall outcomes C. Greater reduction in pain intensity

2 Mulligan Concept (some questions have multiple answers) 6) Which statements are true with references to the Mulligan or MWM techniques? A. The accessory glide applied to the joint can be parallel or perpendicular to the joint axis and must not exceed a pain intensity of 5/10. B. MWM s are used when a comparable sign involves a painful range of movement. C. If symptoms do not improve, it could be that the therapist has chosen the wrong spinal segment. D. The overpressure applied should be pain free. 7) Which statement/s is true concerning NAGs? A. To be avoided in the elderly B. They are performed in weight bearing positions C. Useful in acute post injury management D. Particularly useful in the cervical region Movement Disorders 8) In the Waiters bow test where should flexion not occur? A. Hips B. Knees C. Lumbar spine D. Ankle 9) In the Prone knee flexion test which movement/s are acceptable? A. Pelvic rotation B. Lumbar extension C. Knee flexion D. Hip flexion 10) Which of the following tests assess lumbar extension control? A. Waiters bow B. Rocking backwards in 4 point kneeling C. Prone knee bend 11) The cause of all back pain is classified as non-specific low back pain. 12) The neutral zone is defined as the range of intervertebral motion where spinal motion is produced with minimal internal resistance.

3 13) The hypothesis of impaired movement control and lack of awareness of poor movement patterns does not impact on low back pain. 14) Activity of the short intrinsic muscles of the spine (e.g. Multifidus/ deep erector spinae), are not needed for maintaining stability of the whole spine, but can be maintained by the large Global muscles. 15) Trunk muscle activation is necessary prior to extremity muscles activity, to provide a stable base for effective functional movement without pain. Soft tissue injuries 16) Contributing factors for soft tissue injuries. Which statement is false? A. Contributing factors could be intrinsic e.g. age, gender or personality B. Contributing factors to injury need to be addressed in order to avoid re-injury and expedite healing. C. Soft tissue injuries are very common in sportspeople D. 4. Contributing factors could be extrinsic e.g. equipment used or environment like running surface E. 5. Physiotherapy has a role to play in changing intrinsic contributing factors 17) Specific soft tissue mobilisations A. can be used as assessment and treatment techniques B. give us a lot of information about the soft tissue C. are graded according to pain and tissue resistance D. are very useful in all 3 phases of healing E. are performed by directing a force perpendicular to the relevant tissue 18) Properties of soft tissues A. Creep is continued deformation of a tissue at a fixed load B. Tissue tensile strength is at its lowest immediately following an injury and in the inflammatory phase of healing C. Collagen resists tensile but not compressive force D. Soft tissues are viscoelastic E. The faster the force applied to a soft tissue the stiffer it becomes

4 19) SSTM s (Specific soft tissue mobilisations) A. Are physiological movements B. Are accessory movements C. Are combined movements D. Are not dynamic movements E. Are passive movements 20) Glenohumeral external rotation that is more limited at 45 deg of abduction than at 90 deg of abduction is indicative of A. Shortened anterior deltoid fibres B. decreased subscapularis flexibility C. tight glenohumeral capsule D. rotator cuff tear E. impingement syndrome Pain 21) Which statement is false? A. The Biomedical model focuses heavily on anatomy, pathoanatomy and biomechanics. B. The Biomedical model suggests that every disease process can be explained in terms of an underlying deviation from normal function such as a pathogen or injury. C. The Biomedical model suggests that pathology and symptoms are not directly correlated; that a greater expression of symptoms in the athlete would not necessarily indicate greater underlying pathology. 22) Which statement is true? A. Athletes often have significant tissue pathology (arthritis of the spine, bulging discs, bone spurs, etc.), yet experience little or no pain. B. Nociceptive input, mainly via C-fibres and A-beta fibres from the affected area, are sent via the dorsal horn of the spinal cord to the brain for further processing. C. The premotor area, often activated by thoughts, vision or sound, is inactive in the neuromatrix processing pain. Thus athletes who spend significant time preparing mentally and rehearsing techniques remain unaffected. 23) Choose the incorrect statement: Some of the widespread effects of persistent pain include: A. Prolonged activation of the sympathetic nervous system which is associated with fatigue, sleep disturbance and increased sensitivity of the nervous system. B. Changes in the neuroendocrine system, which leads to changes in circulating cortisol. Cortisol alters cytokine levels and the athlete with persistent pain will be less susceptible to infections.

5 C. Respiration changes to a more superficial pattern, activating accessory muscles, thus diminishing diaphragmatic breathing and thus leading to poor oxygenation of blood. Overuse injuries 24) Pick the untrue statement. Risk factors for overuse injuries include A. Poor mechanics B. The patient s age C. Super specialisation in one sport D. Pressure by parents and coaches E. Sudden uncontrolled movement 25) Which statement is not correct? Overuse injuries: A. Are due to micro-traumatic damage to bone/muscle/tendon due to repetitive stress without sufficient time to heal B. Are classified according to the 3 stages of inflammation - inflammatory, repair and regeneration C. Can be avoided by limiting the amount of training an adolescent does D. Respond well to cross training E. Are more serious in the adolescent athlete 26) Tendinopathies are often overuse injuries. Pick the false statement A. The central nervous system plays a role in the pain experienced in a tendinopathy B. Diagnosis is based on patient history and physical examination C. MRI is a better choice of investigation than US for tendinopathies D. Exercise prescription may have a positive effect on perception of pain E. Tendinopathy commonly presents as the result of focused overload 27) Pick the incorrect statement. Burnout A. is a series of psychological, physiologic and hormonal changes that result in decreased sports performance B. symptoms are chronic muscle or joint pain C. is indicated by the presence of a decreased resting heart rate D. fatigue and mood swings are common E. is prevented by participating in a variety of sports and incorporating rest periods into the program 28) High risk activities for overuse injuries include A. Endurance events B. Multi-game tournaments C. Year-round training on multiple teams in the same sport D. Multi-sport athletes E. Repetitive activities like baseball pitching

6 Neuro Systematic Review 29) Choose the correct option Other forms of NM include: A. SLR Mobilizations, techniques aimed at opening the intervertebral foramina, bentleg raise, mobilizations of tibial and femoral nerves B. SLR Mobilizations, techniques aimed at closing the intervertebral foramina, bent-leg raise, mobilization of tibial and femoral nerves C. SLR Mobilization, techniques aimed at opening the intervertebral foramina, straightleg raise, mobilizations of tibial and femoral nerves D. SLR Mobilization, techniques aimed at opening the intervertebral foramina, bent-leg raise, mobilizations of sural and femoral nerves E. SLR Mobilisation, techniques aimed at closing the intervertebral foramina, bent-leg raise, mobilization of sural and peroneal nerves 30) Choose the most correct answer: A. Cervical lateral glide mobilization improves pain in nerve-related neck and arm pain B. Slump and SLR mobilizations improves pain and disability in nerve-related lower back pain C. Neural mobilizations have positive neurophysiological outcomes in Carpal Tunnel Syndrome and nerve-related lower back pain D. Neural mobilization does have a positive effect on most of the clinical outcome measures in Carpal Tunnel Syndrome E. Neural mobilization improves pain in tarsal tunnel syndrome and plantar heel pain F. A, B, C, E Neurodynamics Shacklock 31) Choose the most correct answer: Mechanical interfaces of the central and peripheral nervous system include: A. Bone, muscles, joints, fascia, fibro-osseus tunnels B. Cranium, spinal canals, radicular canals C. A & B D. None of the above 32) Choose the most correct answer: Examples of musculoskeletal pathomechanics which may cause neural consequences are disc protrusions, spondylolisthesis, joint instability, high intramuscular pressure and overuse 1) True 2) False

7 33) Choose the most correct statement: A. Nerve sliding always occurs in one direction during a limb or body movement B. In the position of hip flexion, knee extension movement cause distal movement of the sciatic nerve towards the knee C. The nerves converge away from the joint where elongation is initiated. D. D) All of the above Posture, Gait, Kinematics 34) The Sway Back posture is best described by the following: A. The pelvis is anteriorly tilted, but swayed forward, with the thoracic spine swayed backwards. B. The pelvis is posteriorly tilted, but swayed backwards, with the thoracic spine swayed backwards. C. The pelvis is posteriorly tilted, but swayed forwards, with the thoracic spine swayed forwards. D. The pelvis is swayed posteriorly, but swayed forwards, with the thoracic spine swayed backwards. 35) The plum line, assessed in the sagittal view, to assess for the ideal posture is: A. The COG should run from anterior to the lateral malleoli, through the knee and hip joint, through the vertebral bodies of both the lumbar and cervical spine, bisect the centre of the humerus and exit the head after bisecting the ear. B. The COG should run from through the lateral malleoli, through the knee and hip joint, through the vertebral bodies of both the lumbar and cervical spine, bisect the centre of the humerus and exit the head after bisecting the ear. C. The COG should run from anterior to the lateral malleoli, anterior to the knee and hip joint, through the vertebral bodies of both the lumbar and cervical spine, bisect the centre of the humerus and exit the head after bisecting the ear. D. The COG should run from anterior to the lateral malleoli, through the knee and hip joint, through the vertebral bodies of the thoracic spine, bisect the centre of the humerus and exit the head after bisecting the ear. 36) There are 3 postural movement strategies for balance. Choose the correct order of these strategies being used in the healthy adult. A. Hip, ankle, stepping B. Stepping, ankle, hip C. Ankle, stepping, hip D. Ankle, hip, stepping

8 37) By the age of 7-10 years, postural responses to sway is reduced, and are generally like an adult. 38) The subtalar joint pronation is associated with external rotation of the tibia, and supination with internal rotation. 39) Pelvic alignment in standing is heavily influenced by foot position irrespective of plane of motion, with resultant movement of the lumbar spine position. a. True b. False