10. Crossing over occurs A. during mitosis. B. during meiosis. C. only in the ovum. D. during fertilization. 11. The process by which equivalent

Transcription

1 ch2 Student: 1. The inherited material an infant receives from its parents is referred to as one's A. ancestral characteristics. B. genotype. C. physical and behavioural characteristics. D. phenotype. 2. The observable and measurable expression of your genetic makeup is known as your A. ancestral characteristics. B. genotype. C. physical characteristics. D. phenotype. 3. Your red hair is an example of. A. your genotype B. your phenotype C. your reaction range D. a dominant trait 4. The expression of the genotype is A. modifiable by a variety of environmental factors. B. not modifiable by environmental factors. C. of little concern to psychologists. D. only known at the infant's birth. 5. The smallest of all human cells is the A. ovum. B. sperm. C. DNA. D. neuron. 6. The way a person's genotype is expressed in observable characteristics is A. the chromosomal trend. B. a phenotype. C. an allele. D. their genetic inheritance. 7. Each ovum and each sperm contain A. 23 pairs of chromosomes. B. 23 chromosomes. C. 46 chromosomes. D. 46 pairs of chromosomes. 8. The process of mitosis is responsible for cell division of the A. germ cells. B. zygotes. C. body cells. D. chromosomes. 9. Meiosis is A. unique to sex chromosomes. B. a form of cell division in which the 23 chromosome pairs are halved. C. unique to body cells. D. a form of cell duplication in which the 23 chromosome pairs are doubled.

2 10. Crossing over occurs A. during mitosis. B. during meiosis. C. only in the ovum. D. during fertilization. 11. The process by which equivalent sections of homologous chromosomes randomly switch places is known as A. mitosis. B. crossing over. C. meiosis. D. gene splicing. 12. The 22 pairs of chromosomes that are possessed equally by males and females are A. sex chromosomes. B. autosomes. C. zygotes. D. germ cells. 13. The basic units of hereditary transmission that code for the production of certain kinds of proteins are A. ova and sperm. B. chromosomes. C. genes. D. DNA molecules. 14. are structural substances that serve functions such as triggering chemical reactions, regulating genes, and providing cells with their characteristic physical properties. A. Carbohydrates B. Fats C. Proteins D. Sugars 15. Activation of a gene for a particular disorder may depend on A. hormones. B. signals in the environment. C. neurotransmitters in the brain. D. blood enzymes. 16. Two or more alternative forms of the gene are known as A. chromosomes. B. recessive. C. heterozygous. D. alleles. 17. One's outward appearance is the same as one's genetic makeup only if the genetic makeup for that trait is A. heterozygous. B. homozygous. C. co-dominant. D. dominant. 18. If you possess blood type AB, those alleles are A. recessive. B. dominant. C. co-dominant. D. homozygous.

3 19. You and your partner are expecting your first baby and are wondering who your baby will resemble. You have curly, dark hair (i.e., homozygous) while your partner has straight, light coloured hair. The phenotype for your child will be A. curly, light coloured hair. B. straight, dark hair. C. curly, dark hair. D. straight, light coloured hair. 20. Your sister has normally clotting blood but is a carrier for hemophilia. If she has children, who is most likely to be affected with this disorder? A. Her female children are more likely to be affected. B. None of her children will be affected. C. Her male children will all have the disorder. D. It depends on whether the child's father has an allele for hemophilia. 21. X-linked characteristics are more common in males than in females because A. males receive no counteracting gene from their father. B. the Y chromosome is a modifier gene. C. male hormones trigger the release of X-linked characteristics. D. the absence of female hormones triggers the release of X-linked characteristics. 22. Genes which influence the expression of other genes are called A. modifier genes. B. influential genes. C. dominant genes. D. X-linked genes. 23. Geniuses are born to parents of average intelligence because of the presence of A. a single allele that determines giftedness. B. a particular X-linked gene. C. a particular configuration of many genes, all interacting with each other. D. hybrid genes. 24. Cataracts are a trait that is influenced by a dominant gene and by A. maternal age. B. genotype. C. phenotype. D. a modifier gene. 25. What is the most probable parental genetic scenario for a child diagnosed with PKU? A. Pp; PP B. only the mother is a carrier C. Pp; Pp D. PP; PP 26. Phenylketonuria (PKU) results from A. the inability to metabolize phenylalanine. B. the inability to tolerate milk. C. a decrease of phenylpyruvic acid in the body. D. an excess of enzymes necessary to metabolize proteins. 27. Research into dietary interventions for PKU indicates that A. treatment should begin by age 2 years. B. early deficits can be eliminated by dietary intervention at any point during the first year. C. the special diet should be discontinued in middle childhood. D. treatment should begin at birth.

4 28. Which genetic disorder is most significantly affected by the environment in which the individual lives? A. Down syndrome B. Turner syndrome C. Sickle cell anemia D. Phenylketonuria 29. Through studying the history of sickle cell anemia, one is able to A. understand the functioning of mutator genes. B. better understand how genetic and environmental factors interact. C. describe the onset and the elimination of a genetic disorder. D. recognize that the same characteristics of a disorder are present in both the heterozygous and homozygous state. 30. The sickle cell trait has survival value because it is associated with A. individuals who are physically stronger. B. resistance to tuberculosis. C. individuals who can function with less oxygen. D. resistance to malarial infection. 31. In order for a recessive disorder to be eliminated from the gene pool, A. persons who are carriers of the disorder would not produce offspring. B. females who carry X-linked disorders would not produce female offspring. C. males who carry X-linked disorders would not produce male offspring. D. all of these would be true. 32. Which of the following statements is NOT true? A. Heterozygous recessive disorders can be passed to offspring. B. Homozygous recessive disorders have no adaptive function. C. Chromosomal abnormalities can be an X-linked recessive trait. D. Chromosomal abnormalities can be caused by extra chromosomes. 33. Down syndrome is the result of the non-disjunction of A. the autosomes. B. RNA from DNA. C. chromosome 21. D. chromosome The increased lifespan of individuals with Down syndrome can be attributed to A. greater understanding of the genetic implications of the disorder. B. advances in the treatment of health complications associated with Down syndrome. C. decreased rates of institutionalization of individuals with Down syndrome. D. earlier detection of the disorder, which can result in a reduction of various complications. 35. Which genetic disorder occurs less often with mothers who are 18- to 39-years-old but more often after mothers are 40? A. Down syndrome B. Turner syndrome C. Sickle cell anemia D. Phenylketonuria 36. Jerry is born with a round face, flattened skull, short limbs, and retardation of motor and mental abilities. The doctors have told Jerry's parents that he has A. Down syndrome. B. Turner syndrome. C. sickle cell anemia. D. phenylketonuria.

5 37. Which genetic disorder is NOT considered a sex-linked chromosomal abnormality? A. Klinefelter syndrome B. Turner syndrome C. Fragile X syndrome D. Down syndrome 38. Which two genetic disorders are alike in that they are both caused by the presence of an extra chromosome? A. Down syndrome and Turner syndrome B. Turner syndrome and Sickle-cell anemia C. Klinefelter syndrome and Down syndrome D. Phenylketonuria and XYY syndrome 39. The chromosomal structure for Turner syndrome is A. XXX. B. XXY. C. XX. D. XO. 40. Most cases of Turner syndrome result from A. an abnormal sperm. B. an abnormal ovum. C. non-disjunction of chromosomes. D. atypical autosomes. 41. Which of the following characteristics regarding Turner syndrome is incorrect? A. The absence of secondary sex characteristics can be remediated through the application of female hormones. B. With the successful use of female hormones, sterility is no longer a complication. C. Girls with Turner syndrome are socially immature and lacking in assertiveness. D. Webbed necks and unusually shaped mouths and ears are present. 42. Which genetic disorder occurs only in females? A. Down syndrome B. Turner syndrome C. XYY syndrome D. Klinefelter syndrome 43. Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of girls with triple-x syndrome? A. normal secondary sexual development B. normal physical appearance C. impairments in short-term memory D. greater impairment in spatial abilities than in verbal skills 44. Klinefelter syndrome manifests itself in A. males. B. females. C. males and females. D. only in infancy. 45. Jeff is a male who is sterile, has enlarged breasts, and may be retarded. Jeff has A. Fragile X syndrome. B. Klinefelter syndrome. C. Turner syndrome. D. XYY syndrome.

6 46. Which of the following conclusions is correct about XYY and XXY males? A. XYY and XXY males are unlikely to suffer cognitive impairment. B. The XYY pattern constitutes Klinefelter syndrome. C. XYY and XXY males tend to be shorter than XY males. D. XYY males are no more aggressive than XY men. 47. Pinching or narrowing of parts of the X chromosome characterizes A. Down syndrome. B. Fragile X Syndrome. C. Klinefelter syndrome. D. Turner syndrome. 48. Which of the following is NOT a reason for developmental disorders occurring? A. transformations in genes B. alterations in the arrangement of genes C. alterations in the quantity of chromosomal material D. alterations in the phenotype 49. When exploring the reasons for diversity in the phenotypic expression of sex chromosomal anomalies, researchers have recognized that A. environmental factors, such as the degree of family support, often play a leading role. B. environmental factors play little or no role. C. environmental factors only heighten the effects of genetic abnormalities. D. environmental factors more typically affect the individual's neuromotor and language abilities than psychosocial and school abilities. 50. At what point in development is the zygote from an in vitro fertilization flushed into the uterus? A. immediately after fertilization B. at the 4-cell stage C. at the 8-cell stage D. at the 12-cell stage 51. In addition to medical and physiological concerns, what type of issue needs to be addressed when considering the implications of new reproductive technologies? A. developmental B. family C. ethical D. religious 52. Which of the following statements is incorrect about genetic counsellors? A. They identify families at risk by analyzing inheritance patterns. B. Following genetic testing, they help couples explore ethically laden choices. C. They serve as educators and resource people for health care professionals and the public D. They must possess a medical degree (i.e., M.D.). 53. For which of the following diseases has a genetic marker been identified? A. infertility B. PKU C. cerebral palsy D. Huntington disease 54. On which chromosome has the genetic marker for cystic fibrosis been found? A. chromosome 7 B. chromosome 21 C. chromosome 4 D. chromosome 14

7 55. A genetic marker is a form of A. RNA. B. DNA. C. co-dominance. D. mixed heritability. 56. Ethical concerns in the area of genetic counseling recognize that A. parental expectations about a child can impact the parent-child relationship. B. parental expectations have little impact upon parents' attitudes and responsivity towards children. C. some information, even questionable, is better than no information. D. the behavioural outcome of a disorder is consistent across individuals. 57. An obstetrician would likely order an alpha-fetoprotein assay test if Laura's fetus is suspected of having A. sickle cell anemia. B. poor uterine positioning. C. a defect of the central nervous system. D. hemophilia. 58. Chorionic villi sampling is a procedure that A. is administered at the ninth or tenth week of pregnancy, considerably earlier than amniocentesis. B. removes cells from the amniotic fluid to biopsy them during the early months of pregnancy. C. is typically performed at 16 weeks, considerably later than amniocentesis. D. is typically performed just before birth to detect any complications. 59. Which of the following is examined in chorionic villi sampling? A. fetal brainwaves B. amniotic fluid C. placenta tissue D. maternal blood 60. Amniocentesis is a procedure that A. carries significant risk of miscarriage. B. is typically performed around the ninth or tenth week of pregnancy. C. requires removal of fluid from the amniotic sac. D. is performed earlier in pregnancy than other prenatal tests. 61. The diagnostic potential of amniocentesis is best when this procedure is performed around the week of pregnancy. A. 8 th B. 10 th C. 12 th D. 16 th 62. Which of these prenatal diagnostic tests has virtually no risk to the mother or the fetus, even if performed several times? A. amniocentesis B. chorionic villi sampling C. maternal blood test D. ultrasound sonography 63. Gene therapy was first used in the USA in 1990 to treat a 4-year-old girl suffering from A. Huntington disease. B. cystic fibrosis. C. a deadly bacterial infection. D. an immune system disease.

8 64. One of the more difficult tasks of the Human Genome Project is to A. identify genes on the Y chromosome. B. determine interactions among multiple genes. C. identify genes on chromosome 21. D. identify diseases caused by single genes 65. The aim(s) of the Human Genome Project include(s) A. identifying the location of genes. B. identifying the location of genes associated with disease. C. making genes accessible for further biological study. D. all of these. 66. The process whereby genetic factors limit an individual's responsiveness to the environment is known as A. canalization. B. discontinuity. C. differentiation. D. range of reaction. 67. The tendency for growth to return to a genetically predetermined path in spite of environmental influences that may temporarily deflect it is a description of A. canalization. B. a discontinuous process. C. differentiation. D. range of reaction. 68. Which genetic principle suggests the importance of an environment's restrictiveness or enrichment? A. canalization B. reaction range C. dominant-recessive genes D. polygenic inheritance 69. The range of possible phenotypes for each genotype is called A. canalization. B. polygenic inheritance. C. reaction range. D. heritability index. 70. Some traits, like the number of eyes we have, are not greatly affected by the range of environments in which individuals live. These traits have been influenced by A. the individual's genotype. B. the individual's phenotype. C. the polygenic nature of genetics. D. canalization. 71. A child born with "medium tall" genes for height who suffers a long-term impoverished diet may be shorter than average; however, in an excellent nutritional environment, this individual may grow up to be taller than average. This is an example of A. the reaction range. B. the importance of healthy eating. C. the famous "height study" conducted by Darwin. D. none of these. 72. Even if we know that a child's IQ is 120, we still cannot predict exactly what genetic codes the child has for intelligence because intelligence is a trait A. that is highly canalized. B. with a broad reaction range. C. governed by complicated dominant-recessive genes. D. that is not governed by genetics; it is influenced almost entirely by the environment.

9 73. Reaction range is related more to while canalization is related more to. A. genotype; phenotype B. genetic normality; genetic abnormality C. environmental influence; genetic rigidity D. genetic rigidity; environmental influence 74. Amanda was born with Down syndrome. The doctors predicted that Amanda's IQ could range from 35 to 70, depending upon whether Amanda receives supportive educational training programs. This variability in Amanda's potential IQ is an example of the A. canalization of intelligence. B. reaction range for intelligence. C. polygenic inheritance of intelligence. D. dominant-recessive gene action with intelligence. 75. Which child would be likely to exhibit the smallest reaction range for the trait of intelligence? A. a child born with severe brain damage B. a child born with mild brain damage C. a child born to parents with normal intelligence D. a child born to parents with extremely high intelligence 76. Despite many variations in environmental conditions and rearing practices, most children learn to walk at about the same time in the same sequence. We would say that walking as a trait is A. unaffected by the reaction range. B. phenotypical. C. learned and practiced behaviour. D. canalized. 77. Generalizing from the text, traits that exhibit a degree of canalization will have a reaction range. A. low; narrow B. high; wide C. high; narrow D. low; non-existent 78. A strongly canalized trait is one that A. is easily influenced by environmental conditions. B. is affected little by environmental conditions. C. only appears in certain situations. D. has a large reaction range. 79. Generalizing from the text, one would predict that characteristics that exhibit a degree of canalization would display a level of concordance in monozygotic twins. A. high; high B. low; high C. high; negative D. low; stable 80. According to the developmental systems view, the interaction between genes and the environment is influenced by the child's A. parents. B. culture. C. temperament. D. developmental stage. 81. In Gottlieb's developmental systems view, the influence of the environment and genes is A. bidirectional. B. orthogonal. C. unilateral. D. temporary.

10 82. The statement that children influence their parents is most comparable to the view that A. the environment influences genotypes. B. the genotype influences the environment. C. parents influence their children. D. parents influence the child's environment. 83. Because Haley is a sociable, gregarious child, she tends to be noticed by her teachers and peers. How does Haley interact with her environment? A. inappropriately B. passively C. evocatively D. prosocially 84. Evocative genotype-environment correlations occur A. when biological parents provide a rearing environment for the child. B. because a child's genotype elicits certain types of physical and social environments. C. when children seek out environments they find compatible and stimulating. D. when children have common environmental experiences with their siblings. 85. Niche picking refers to A. children relying on their parents to build a stimulating environment for them. B.children and adults being actively involved in identifying and/or creating an environment they find responsive and stimulating. C. parents following their children's innate cues in building appropriately stimulating environments. D. biological predispositions for traits seen in certain geographical areas. 86. Ramona is high functioning academically and enjoys activities involving repetitive movements and math calculations. Her classroom teachers were concerned that she would have difficulty participating and completing activities in the regular classroom. Ramona would sob, cover her ears, and rock in her chair when there was too much visual and auditory stimuli or when she did not know an answer to a question. When the classroom teacher asked her to complete a math facts worksheet, the entire class was amazed to see that Ramona completed the math problems within a minute. From that point forward, Ramona was the "math leader" of the class, which not only increased her self confidence, but increased her social interaction with peers as well. What is Ramona's "niche"? A. her good math ability B. her disorder of autism C. her poor social skills D. her inclusion in a regular classroom 87. The research finding that shows certain behavioural genotypes to be more strongly shown in adolescence than in childhood supports the idea of A. range of reaction. B. canalization. C. niche picking. D. reactive processes. 88. You are the parent of a very active 4-year-old child. In an attempt to provide cognitive stimulation for your child, you sit with her to build puzzles, read books, and fit shapes into cutouts. As your child gets older, you may expect that she will A. still enjoy putting puzzles together. B. participate less in cognitive activities and more in physical activities. C. choose cognitive activities over physical activities. D. become less active due to the early cognitive stimulation that you provided for her.

11 89. The primary concern for behaviour geneticists is A. identifying single genes that cause changes in behaviour. B. understanding chromosomal errors that contribute to gross developmental deviations. C. identifying the genetic material involved in transmitting personality characteristics. D.understanding genetic contributions to the variations in individual differences found throughout the human lifespan. 90. Which of the following is the focus of behaviour geneticists? A. the biochemical basis of behaviour B. genetic mechanisms C. genetic relatedness D. reproductive processes 91. As a behaviour geneticist, you routinely calculate the "heritability factor," defined as. A. the percentage estimate of the contribution that heredity makes to a particular ability or type of behaviour. B.the percentage of cases in which a characteristic or trait exhibited by one member of a twin pair is also exhibited by the other twin. C. the strength of the association between two variables. D. none of these. 92. Which of the following is a behaviour geneticist most likely to use as research subjects? A. rats B. children C. identical twins D. individuals with psychological disorders 93. Researchers conducting family resemblance studies most frequently employ A. kinship studies. B. sibling studies. C. adoption and twin studies. D. parent-child studies. 94. Twins which are created by the separation of the zygote following fertilization of a single egg by a single sperm are known as A. monozygotic. B. dizygotic. C. fraternal. D. mutants. 95. Which of the following is least likely to contribute to similarities between identical twins? A. genetics B. niche picking C. home environments provided by parents D. parental IQ 96. Two infants are adopted by a family. The infants are the same age and are adopted at the same time but are not biologically related. Research supports which of the following statements? A. They will show few similarities in personality because their genotypes are not similar. B. The two will have similar personalities because they share a similar environment. C.They will be similar during early and middle childhood but will become less similar in adolescence due to niche picking. D.They will be very similar during adolescence because the environment will have strongly influenced their personalities.

12 97. Research conducted on identical twins reared apart A. shows that their IQ scores are more similar than fraternal twins raised in the same home. B. shows that the more dissimilar the environments, the less resemblance is shown. C. shows that regardless of environmental similarity, IQ correlations are unchanged. D. argues that the strength of niche picking overrides environmental limitations. 98. Who would you expect to have the greatest resemblance in intelligence? A. adoptive children and their biological parents B. identical twins reared apart C. fraternal twins reared together D. siblings reared together 99. The common experience shared by two siblings is referred to as A. family. B. shared environment. C. biological relatedness. D. family drift. 100.Researchers describe differences in family experiences among siblings as A. nonshared environment. B. family drift. C. sibling rivalry. D. perceptual influences. 101.Which of the following is a "shared experience" among siblings? A. temperament B. birth order C. gender D. alcoholic parents 102.Research can infer that a trait is mostly influenced by genes if A. children are more similar to their adoptive parents than their biological parents. B. identical twins do not show any resemblance to each other in the trait. C. identical twins show more resemblance in the trait then fraternal twins. D. fraternal twins show more resemblance in the trait than identical twins. 103.Which infants are likely to respond negatively to new situations? A. difficult infants only B. slow-to-warm-up infants only C. both difficult and slow-to-warm-up infants D. antisocial infants 104.The goodness-of-fit model suggests A. only parents of easy children can adjust their parenting style to fit with their children's personality. B. parental strategies that use gentle discipline will work better for fearful children. C. parental strategies that use gentle discipline will work better for fearless children. D. parental strategies that use harsh and punitive discipline will work better for a difficult child. 105.The correlation between intellectual functioning and genetic kinship bonds is A. positive. B. negative. C. zero. D. inconsistent. 106.Which of the following characteristics shows the least genetic influence? A. spatial abilities B. IQ scores C. verbal abilities D. creativity

13 107.In general, studies have shown that the correlation between adoptive parents' IQs and their adopted child's IQ A. increases throughout childhood. B. decreases as the child grows older. C. increases throughout adolescence. D. does not change over time. 108.The child's biologically based style of responding is called her A. personality. B. self-regulatory set. C. mood. D. temperament. 109.Kristen and Amanda both were born with difficult temperaments. Kristen's mother is flexible, accepting, and enjoys being with her daughter. In contrast, Amanda's mother finds her infant's behaviour irritating and is often angry and punitive. Which of the following is most likely? A. Kristen and Amanda are equally likely to develop behaviour problems because both have difficult temperaments. B. Kristen is more likely to develop behaviour problems because of her mother's behaviour. C. Amanda is more likely to develop behaviour problems because of her mother's behaviour. D. Neither Kristen nor Amanda is likely to develop behaviour problems. 110.Which of the following statements is NOT true? A. Children who were difficult infants are likely to have difficulty adapting to environmental demands. B. Children who were difficult infants are likely to elicit negative responses from parents. C. Children who were difficult infants are likely to be unchanged by environmental pressures. D. Children who were difficult infants are more likely to develop behaviour disorders. 111.Research suggests that one of the following is likely to occur when mothers experience stress and have little support. A. Mothers will form strong bonds of attachment with their infants because they turn to the infants for affection. B.The attachment bonds between mothers and infants may be disrupted, particularly if the infant is a rather passive, easy baby. C. The attachment bonds between mothers and irritable infants are likely to be disrupted. D. It becomes almost impossible for mothers and infants to establish bonds of attachment. 112.If you develop schizophrenia, who of the following is most likely to also develop or already display the disorder? A. your dizygotic twin B. your monozygotic twin C. your mother or father D. your younger brother or sister 113.Which of the following is the most accurate summary of current research concerning the impact of parental pathology on the development of their children? A.Depressed mothers frequently have schizophrenic offspring and schizophrenic mothers frequently have depressed children. B While schizophrenic mothers tend to have schizophrenic children, depression in a parent is not. associated with negative outcomes for the children. C While depressed parents frequently have children who are depressed, schizophrenia in a parent is not. associated with negative outcomes for the children. D.Both depression in a parent and schizophrenia in a parent are associated with a vast array of negative outcomes in children.

14 114.Describe the composition of chromosomes, making reference to DNA, genes, nucleotides, etc. 115.Using examples, distinguish between co-dominant, dominant, and recessive alleles. 116.Describe the differences in transmission between PKU and sickle cell disease. 117.Explain why males are susceptible to X-linked recessive disorders. 118.Describe any three developmental disorders discussed in the textbook. 119.Describe how genetic makeup helps shape the environment. Describe how the environment influences the expression of genes.

15 120.What relevance does behaviour genetics have for the field of developmental psychology? 121.What can be learned from conducting adoption and twin studies? 122.Because environmental experiences interact with genetic makeup to determine who we become, describe some factors in childhood that could influence twins separated at birth to become different. 123.Explain how siblings who possess the same biological parents and grow up in the same household can be so different from each other. 124.What parental factors might contribute to developmental problems in children who were described as difficult babies?

16 1. (p. 44) 2. (p. 44) ch2 Key The inherited material an infant receives from its parents is referred to as one's A. ancestral characteristics. B. genotype. C. physical and behavioural characteristics. D. phenotype. The observable and measurable expression of your genetic makeup is known as your A. ancestral characteristics. B. genotype. C. physical characteristics. D. phenotype. Learning Objective: 1 Parke - Chapter 02 #1 3. (p. 44) 4. (p. 44) 5. (p. 44) 6. (p. 44) 7. (p. 44) Your red hair is an example of. A. your genotype B. your phenotype C. your reaction range D. a dominant trait The expression of the genotype is A. modifiable by a variety of environmental factors. B. not modifiable by environmental factors. C. of little concern to psychologists. D. only known at the infant's birth. The smallest of all human cells is the A. ovum. B. sperm. C. DNA. D. neuron. The way a person's genotype is expressed in observable characteristics is A. the chromosomal trend. B. a phenotype. C. an allele. D. their genetic inheritance. Each ovum and each sperm contain A. 23 pairs of chromosomes. B. 23 chromosomes. C. 46 chromosomes. D. 46 pairs of chromosomes. Learning Objective: 1 Parke - Chapter 02 #2 Learning Objective: 1 Parke - Chapter 02 #3 Learning Objective: 1 Parke - Chapter 02 #4 Learning Objective: 1 Parke - Chapter 02 #5 Learning Objective: 1 Parke - Chapter 02 #6 Learning Objective: 1 Parke - Chapter 02 #7

17 8. (p. 46) 9. (p. 45) 10. (p. 45) The process of mitosis is responsible for cell division of the A. germ cells. B. zygotes. C. body cells. D. chromosomes. Meiosis is A. unique to sex chromosomes. B. a form of cell division in which the 23 chromosome pairs are halved. C. unique to body cells. D. a form of cell duplication in which the 23 chromosome pairs are doubled. Crossing over occurs A. during mitosis. B. during meiosis. C. only in the ovum. D. during fertilization. Learning Objective: 1 Parke - Chapter 02 #8 Learning Objective: 1 Parke - Chapter 02 #9 11. (p. 45) 12. (p. 46) 13. (p. 47) 14. (p. 47) Learning Objective: Knowledge Parke - Chapter 02 #10 The process by which equivalent sections of homologous chromosomes randomly switch places is known as A. mitosis. B. crossing over. C. meiosis. D. gene splicing. The 22 pairs of chromosomes that are possessed equally by males and females are A. sex chromosomes. B. autosomes. C. zygotes. D. germ cells. Learning Objective: 1 Parke - Chapter 02 #11 Learning Objective: 1 Parke - Chapter 02 #12 The basic units of hereditary transmission that code for the production of certain kinds of proteins are A. ova and sperm. B. chromosomes. C. genes. D. DNA molecules. Learning Objective: Analysis Parke - Chapter 02 #13 are structural substances that serve functions such as triggering chemical reactions, regulating genes, and providing cells with their characteristic physical properties. A. Carbohydrates B. Fats C. Proteins D. Sugars Learning Objective: 1 Parke - Chapter 02 #14 Type: Analysis

18 15. (p. 47) 16. (p. 48) Activation of a gene for a particular disorder may depend on A. hormones. B. signals in the environment. C. neurotransmitters in the brain. D. blood enzymes. Two or more alternative forms of the gene are known as A. chromosomes. B. recessive. C. heterozygous. D. alleles. Learning Objective: 2 Parke - Chapter 02 # (p. 48) Learning Objective: 2 Parke - Chapter 02 #16 One's outward appearance is the same as one's genetic makeup only if the genetic makeup for that trait is A. heterozygous. B. homozygous. C. co-dominant. D. dominant. 18. (p. 48) If you possess blood type AB, those alleles are A. recessive. B. dominant. C. co-dominant. D. homozygous. Learning Objective: 2 Parke - Chapter 02 # (p. 48) 20. (p. 49) Learning Objective: 2 Parke - Chapter 02 #18 You and your partner are expecting your first baby and are wondering who your baby will resemble. You have curly, dark hair (i.e., homozygous) while your partner has straight, light coloured hair. The phenotype for your child will be A. curly, light coloured hair. B. straight, dark hair. C. curly, dark hair. D. straight, light coloured hair. Learning Objective: 2 Parke - Chapter 02 #19 Type: Application Your sister has normally clotting blood but is a carrier for hemophilia. If she has children, who is most likely to be affected with this disorder? A. Her female children are more likely to be affected. B. None of her children will be affected. C. Her male children will all have the disorder. D. It depends on whether the child's father has an allele for hemophilia. Learning Objective: 2 Parke - Chapter 02 #20

19 21. (p. 49) 22. (p. 50) 23. (p. 50) 24. (p. 50) X-linked characteristics are more common in males than in females because A. males receive no counteracting gene from their father. B. the Y chromosome is a modifier gene. C. male hormones trigger the release of X-linked characteristics. D. the absence of female hormones triggers the release of X-linked characteristics. Genes which influence the expression of other genes are called A. modifier genes. B. influential genes. C. dominant genes. D. X-linked genes. Geniuses are born to parents of average intelligence because of the presence of A. a single allele that determines giftedness. B. a particular X-linked gene. C. a particular configuration of many genes, all interacting with each other. D. hybrid genes. Cataracts are a trait that is influenced by a dominant gene and by A. maternal age. B. genotype. C. phenotype. D. a modifier gene. Learning Objective: 2 Parke - Chapter 02 #21 Learning Objective: 2 Parke - Chapter 02 #22 Learning Objective: 2 Parke - Chapter 02 # (p. 53) What is the most probable parental genetic scenario for a child diagnosed with PKU? A. Pp; PP B. only the mother is a carrier C. Pp; Pp D. PP; PP Learning Objective: 2 Parke - Chapter 02 # (p. 53) Phenylketonuria (PKU) results from A. the inability to metabolize phenylalanine. B. the inability to tolerate milk. C. a decrease of phenylpyruvic acid in the body. D. an excess of enzymes necessary to metabolize proteins. Parke - Chapter 02 # (p. 53) Research into dietary interventions for PKU indicates that A. treatment should begin by age 2 years. B. early deficits can be eliminated by dietary intervention at any point during the first year. C. the special diet should be discontinued in middle childhood. D. treatment should begin at birth. Parke - Chapter 02 #26 Parke - Chapter 02 #27

20 28. (p. 53) 29. (p. 54) Which genetic disorder is most significantly affected by the environment in which the individual lives? A. Down syndrome B. Turner syndrome C. Sickle cell anemia D. Phenylketonuria Parke - Chapter 02 #28 Through studying the history of sickle cell anemia, one is able to A. understand the functioning of mutator genes. B. better understand how genetic and environmental factors interact. C. describe the onset and the elimination of a genetic disorder. D. recognize that the same characteristics of a disorder are present in both the heterozygous and homozygous state. 30. (p. 54) 31. (p. 55) The sickle cell trait has survival value because it is associated with A. individuals who are physically stronger. B. resistance to tuberculosis. C. individuals who can function with less oxygen. D. resistance to malarial infection. In order for a recessive disorder to be eliminated from the gene pool, A. persons who are carriers of the disorder would not produce offspring. B. females who carry X-linked disorders would not produce female offspring. C. males who carry X-linked disorders would not produce male offspring. D. all of these would be true. Parke - Chapter 02 #29 Parke - Chapter 02 # (p ) Which of the following statements is NOT true? A. Heterozygous recessive disorders can be passed to offspring. B. Homozygous recessive disorders have no adaptive function. C. Chromosomal abnormalities can be an X-linked recessive trait. D. Chromosomal abnormalities can be caused by extra chromosomes. Parke - Chapter 02 # (p. 55) Down syndrome is the result of the non-disjunction of A. the autosomes. B. RNA from DNA. C. chromosome 21. D. chromosome 20. Parke - Chapter 02 #32 Type: Applied 34. (p ) The increased lifespan of individuals with Down syndrome can be attributed to A. greater understanding of the genetic implications of the disorder. B. advances in the treatment of health complications associated with Down syndrome. C. decreased rates of institutionalization of individuals with Down syndrome. D. earlier detection of the disorder, which can result in a reduction of various complications. Parke - Chapter 02 #33 Parke - Chapter 02 #34

21 35. (p. 54) 36. (p. 54) Which genetic disorder occurs less often with mothers who are 18- to 39-years-old but more often after mothers are 40? A. Down syndrome B. Turner syndrome C. Sickle cell anemia D. Phenylketonuria Parke - Chapter 02 #35 Jerry is born with a round face, flattened skull, short limbs, and retardation of motor and mental abilities. The doctors have told Jerry's parents that he has A. Down syndrome. B. Turner syndrome. C. sickle cell anemia. D. phenylketonuria. 37. (p ) 38. (p ) Which genetic disorder is NOT considered a sex-linked chromosomal abnormality? A. Klinefelter syndrome B. Turner syndrome C. Fragile X syndrome D. Down syndrome Which two genetic disorders are alike in that they are both caused by the presence of an extra chromosome? A. Down syndrome and Turner syndrome B. Turner syndrome and Sickle-cell anemia C. Klinefelter syndrome and Down syndrome D. Phenylketonuria and XYY syndrome Parke - Chapter 02 #36 Parke - Chapter 02 # (p. 57) 40. (p. 57) The chromosomal structure for Turner syndrome is A. XXX. B. XXY. C. XX. D. XO. Most cases of Turner syndrome result from A. an abnormal sperm. B. an abnormal ovum. C. non-disjunction of chromosomes. D. atypical autosomes. Parke - Chapter 02 #38 Parke - Chapter 02 #39 Parke - Chapter 02 #40

22 41. (p. 57) Which of the following characteristics regarding Turner syndrome is incorrect? A. The absence of secondary sex characteristics can be remediated through the application of female hormones. B. With the successful use of female hormones, sterility is no longer a complication. C. Girls with Turner syndrome are socially immature and lacking in assertiveness. D. Webbed necks and unusually shaped mouths and ears are present. 42. (p ) Which genetic disorder occurs only in females? A. Down syndrome B. Turner syndrome C. XYY syndrome D. Klinefelter syndrome Parke - Chapter 02 # (p. 57) Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of girls with triple-x syndrome? A. normal secondary sexual development B. normal physical appearance C. impairments in short-term memory D. greater impairment in spatial abilities than in verbal skills Parke - Chapter 02 # (p. 57) 45. (p. 57) 46. (p. 57) 47. (p. 57) Klinefelter syndrome manifests itself in A. males. B. females. C. males and females. D. only in infancy. Jeff is a male who is sterile, has enlarged breasts, and may be retarded. Jeff has A. Fragile X syndrome. B. Klinefelter syndrome. C. Turner syndrome. D. XYY syndrome. Which of the following conclusions is correct about XYY and XXY males? A. XYY and XXY males are unlikely to suffer cognitive impairment. B. The XYY pattern constitutes Klinefelter syndrome. C. XYY and XXY males tend to be shorter than XY males. D. XYY males are no more aggressive than XY men. Pinching or narrowing of parts of the X chromosome characterizes A. Down syndrome. B. Fragile X Syndrome. C. Klinefelter syndrome. D. Turner syndrome. Parke - Chapter 02 #43 Type: Application Parke - Chapter 02 #44 Parke - Chapter 02 #45 Parke - Chapter 02 #46 Parke - Chapter 02 #47

23 48. (p ) Which of the following is NOT a reason for developmental disorders occurring? A. transformations in genes B. alterations in the arrangement of genes C. alterations in the quantity of chromosomal material D. alterations in the phenotype 49. (p. 57) 50. (p. 59) Parke - Chapter 02 #48 Type: Analysis When exploring the reasons for diversity in the phenotypic expression of sex chromosomal anomalies, researchers have recognized that A. environmental factors, such as the degree of family support, often play a leading role. B. environmental factors play little or no role. C. environmental factors only heighten the effects of genetic abnormalities. D. environmental factors more typically affect the individual's neuromotor and language abilities than psychosocial and school abilities. Parke - Chapter 02 #49 At what point in development is the zygote from an in vitro fertilization flushed into the uterus? A. immediately after fertilization B. at the 4-cell stage C. at the 8-cell stage D. at the 12-cell stage 51. (p ) 52. (p ) Learning Objective: 4 Parke - Chapter 02 #50 In addition to medical and physiological concerns, what type of issue needs to be addressed when considering the implications of new reproductive technologies? A. developmental B. family C. ethical D. religious Which of the following statements is incorrect about genetic counsellors? A. They identify families at risk by analyzing inheritance patterns. B. Following genetic testing, they help couples explore ethically laden choices. C. They serve as educators and resource people for health care professionals and the public D. They must possess a medical degree (i.e., M.D.). Learning Objective: 4 Parke - Chapter 02 # (p. 61) 54. (p. 60) For which of the following diseases has a genetic marker been identified? A. infertility B. PKU C. cerebral palsy D. Huntington disease On which chromosome has the genetic marker for cystic fibrosis been found? A. chromosome 7 B. chromosome 21 C. chromosome 4 D. chromosome 14 Learning Objective: 5 Parke - Chapter 02 #52 Type: Analysis Learning Objective: 5 Parke - Chapter 02 #53 Learning Objective: 5 Parke - Chapter 02 #54

24 55. (p. 60) 56. (p. 61) 57. (p. 61) 58. (p. 60) A genetic marker is a form of A. RNA. B. DNA. C. co-dominance. D. mixed heritability. Learning Objective: 5 Parke - Chapter 02 #55 Ethical concerns in the area of genetic counseling recognize that A. parental expectations about a child can impact the parent-child relationship. B. parental expectations have little impact upon parents' attitudes and responsivity towards children. C. some information, even questionable, is better than no information. D. the behavioural outcome of a disorder is consistent across individuals. Learning Objective: 5 Parke - Chapter 02 #56 An obstetrician would likely order an alpha-fetoprotein assay test if Laura's fetus is suspected of having A. sickle cell anemia. B. poor uterine positioning. C. a defect of the central nervous system. D. hemophilia. Learning Objective: 5 Parke - Chapter 02 #57 Chorionic villi sampling is a procedure that A. is administered at the ninth or tenth week of pregnancy, considerably earlier than amniocentesis. B. removes cells from the amniotic fluid to biopsy them during the early months of pregnancy. C. is typically performed at 16 weeks, considerably later than amniocentesis. D. is typically performed just before birth to detect any complications. 59. (p. 60) 60. (p. 60) Which of the following is examined in chorionic villi sampling? A. fetal brainwaves B. amniotic fluid C. placenta tissue D. maternal blood Amniocentesis is a procedure that A. carries significant risk of miscarriage. B. is typically performed around the ninth or tenth week of pregnancy. C. requires removal of fluid from the amniotic sac. D. is performed earlier in pregnancy than other prenatal tests. Learning Objective: 5 Parke - Chapter 02 #58 Learning Objective: 5 Parke - Chapter 02 # (p. 60) Learning Objective: 5 Parke - Chapter 02 #60 The diagnostic potential of amniocentesis is best when this procedure is performed around the week of pregnancy. A. 8 th B. 10 th C. 12 th D. 16 th Learning Objective: 5 Parke - Chapter 02 #61

25 62. (p. 61) 63. (p. 62) Which of these prenatal diagnostic tests has virtually no risk to the mother or the fetus, even if performed several times? A. amniocentesis B. chorionic villi sampling C. maternal blood test D. ultrasound sonography Gene therapy was first used in the USA in 1990 to treat a 4-year-old girl suffering from A. Huntington disease. B. cystic fibrosis. C. a deadly bacterial infection. D. an immune system disease. Learning Objective: 5 Parke - Chapter 02 # (p. 64) 65. (p. 64) One of the more difficult tasks of the Human Genome Project is to A. identify genes on the Y chromosome. B. determine interactions among multiple genes. C. identify genes on chromosome 21. D. identify diseases caused by single genes The aim(s) of the Human Genome Project include(s) A. identifying the location of genes. B. identifying the location of genes associated with disease. C. making genes accessible for further biological study. D. all of these. Learning Objective: 5 Parke - Chapter 02 #63 Parke - Chapter 02 # (p. 64) 67. (p. 64) Parke - Chapter 02 #65 Type: Analysis The process whereby genetic factors limit an individual's responsiveness to the environment is known as A. canalization. B. discontinuity. C. differentiation. D. range of reaction. Parke - Chapter 02 #66 The tendency for growth to return to a genetically predetermined path in spite of environmental influences that may temporarily deflect it is a description of A. canalization. B. a discontinuous process. C. differentiation. D. range of reaction. Parke - Chapter 02 #67 Type: Application

26 68. (p. 63) Which genetic principle suggests the importance of an environment's restrictiveness or enrichment? A. canalization B. reaction range C. dominant-recessive genes D. polygenic inheritance 69. (p. 63) The range of possible phenotypes for each genotype is called A. canalization. B. polygenic inheritance. C. reaction range. D. heritability index. Parke - Chapter 02 # (p. 64) 71. (p. 63) 72. (p. 63) 73. (p. 63) Parke - Chapter 02 #69 Some traits, like the number of eyes we have, are not greatly affected by the range of environments in which individuals live. These traits have been influenced by A. the individual's genotype. B. the individual's phenotype. C. the polygenic nature of genetics. D. canalization. Parke - Chapter 02 #70 Type: Application A child born with "medium tall" genes for height who suffers a long-term impoverished diet may be shorter than average; however, in an excellent nutritional environment, this individual may grow up to be taller than average. This is an example of A. the reaction range. B. the importance of healthy eating. C. the famous "height study" conducted by Darwin. D. none of these. Parke - Chapter 02 #71 Type: Application Even if we know that a child's IQ is 120, we still cannot predict exactly what genetic codes the child has for intelligence because intelligence is a trait A. that is highly canalized. B. with a broad reaction range. C. governed by complicated dominant-recessive genes. D. that is not governed by genetics; it is influenced almost entirely by the environment. Reaction range is related more to while canalization is related more to. A. genotype; phenotype B. genetic normality; genetic abnormality C. environmental influence; genetic rigidity D. genetic rigidity; environmental influence Parke - Chapter 02 #72 Type: Application Parke - Chapter 02 #73 Type: Analysis

27 74. (p. 63) 75. (p. 63) 76. (p. 63) Amanda was born with Down syndrome. The doctors predicted that Amanda's IQ could range from 35 to 70, depending upon whether Amanda receives supportive educational training programs. This variability in Amanda's potential IQ is an example of the A. canalization of intelligence. B. reaction range for intelligence. C. polygenic inheritance of intelligence. D. dominant-recessive gene action with intelligence. Parke - Chapter 02 #74 Type: Application Which child would be likely to exhibit the smallest reaction range for the trait of intelligence? A. a child born with severe brain damage B. a child born with mild brain damage C. a child born to parents with normal intelligence D. a child born to parents with extremely high intelligence Parke - Chapter 02 #75 Type: Application Despite many variations in environmental conditions and rearing practices, most children learn to walk at about the same time in the same sequence. We would say that walking as a trait is A. unaffected by the reaction range. B. phenotypical. C. learned and practiced behaviour. D. canalized. 77. (p ) Generalizing from the text, traits that exhibit a degree of canalization will have a reaction range. A. low; narrow B. high; wide C. high; narrow D. low; non-existent Parke - Chapter 02 # (p. 64) A strongly canalized trait is one that A. is easily influenced by environmental conditions. B. is affected little by environmental conditions. C. only appears in certain situations. D. has a large reaction range. Parke - Chapter 02 #77 Type: Analysis 79. (p. 64) Parke - Chapter 02 #78 Generalizing from the text, one would predict that characteristics that exhibit a degree of canalization would display a level of concordance in monozygotic twins. A. high; high B. low; high C. high; negative D. low; stable Parke - Chapter 02 #79 Type: Analysis