Exam #1 Foundations and Airway

Transcription

1 1. The National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians was founded to establish which of the following? a. An education curriculum for EMT courses b. Quality oversight of emergency medical services practices c. Professional standards for emergency medical services personnel d. Quality improvement and quality assurance programs for emergency medical services 2. Why is it important for EMTs to participate in quality improvement programs? a. To ensure that individuals making false calls for EMS are prosecuted b. To identify problem employees and create a corrective action plan c. To identify problems and develop a plan to prevent their recurrence d. To ensure adequate personnel are available for emergencies 3. Who assumes the ultimate responsibility for patient care rendered by the EMT? a. EMS supervisor b. EMT c. Director of quality assurance d. Medical Director 4. All of the following are EMS system components as defined by the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) EXCEPT: a. safety and security of EMS personnel. b. facilities. c. regulation and policy. d. public information and education. 5. Which of the following is considered a form of off-line medical control? a. Radio orders b. Consult with on-duty physician c. Protocols d. Telephone orders 6. Which of the following descriptions BEST defines the term pathogen? a. An immunity developed after an exposure b. A study of the origins of infection and disease c. A medication with a harmful effect d. An organism that causes infection and disease 7. Which of the following pathogens can live in dried blood for weeks and should be a major concern for EMS providers even while cleaning contaminated equipment? a. Tuberculosis b. Hepatitis B c. Hepatitis A d. AIDS 8. The term burnout is also known as a(n) stress reaction. a. delayed b. post-traumatic c. acute d. cumulative 1

2 9. Post-traumatic stress disorder may be described as a(n): a. acute stress reaction. b. cumulative stress reaction. c. severe stress reaction. d. delayed stress reaction. 10. Which three "Rs" are essential for the EMT to practice when reacting to danger? a. Retreat, radio, reevaluate b. Remember, respect, respond c. Ricochet, recover, re-entry d. Realize, react, reassess 11. What is the name of the federal act that mandates a procedure by which emergency healthcare providers can find out if they have been exposed to potentially life-threatening diseases while on the job? a. The Communicable Disease Notification Act b. The EMS Personnel Health Protection Act of 1991 c. The Occupational Exposure to Bloodborne Pathogens Act d. The Ryan White Comprehensive AIDS Resource Emergency Act 12. You are treating a patient who has a productive cough and who reports weight loss, loss of appetite, weakness, night sweats, and fever. Which of the following diseases is most likely the cause of these signs and symptoms? a. Hepatitis B b. Pneumonia c. AIDS d. Tuberculosis 13. A family member who keeps pleading with a deceased loved one to "wake up" is experiencing which reaction to death and dying? a. Anger b. Rejection c. Projection d. Denial 14. Which of the following behaviors would be considered a common sign of stress rather than an acute psychological problem? a. Failure to use PPE appropriately on a regular basis b. Irritability with friends, family, coworkers, or patients c. Flashbacks, nightmares, and feelings of detachment d. Increased speeding and reckless driving 15. The term body mechanics describes the proper use of your body to lift without injury. What are the three considerations to review before any lift? a. Equipment, patient injury, and communication b. The object, patient injury, and communication c. The object, your limitations, and communication d. Equipment, injury, and communication 2

3 16. Stretchers that are designed to carry obese patients up to 800 pounds are called: a. battery-powered stretchers. b. wheeled stretchers. c. hydraulic stretchers. d. bariatric stretchers. 17. What is the preferred number of rescuers when using a stair chair? a. Two: one in front and one in back b. Only one with the trac-like chair c. Four: one for each corner of the device d. Three: two lifting and one spotting 18. You respond to a park where you find a 550-pound patient who has fallen down a slope near a creek. As you and your partner discuss the situation, you decide to call a second unit for lifting assistance. How would the additional two personnel help in this lift? a. You place one person on each corner of the stretcher to balance the weight and share in the lifting. b. They would position themselves half way up the slope to take over when you and your partner get fatigued. c. You will place two persons at the foot, one at the head, and the other to act as a safety anchor with a rope. d. You will place two persons at the head of the stretcher, one at the foot, and one to act as a spotter. 19. Which of the following situations would require the use of an emergency move? a. Your patient has a life-threatening condition that requires repositioning. b. You must reach other, more critically injured patients. c. The scene is hazardous. d. All of the above 20. You are treating an unconscious patient who does not have a possibility of spinal injury and who is breathing adequately. Which of the following is the BEST position for transporting the patient? a. Supine b. Fowler's position c. Semi-Fowler's position d. Recovery position 21. Which of the following refers to the set of regulations that defines the legal actions expected and limitations placed on the EMT? a. Scope of practice b. Legal standards of practice c. Protocols and standing orders d. Professional standards 22. Which type of consent must be used by the EMT when seeking to treat a mentally competent adult? a. Unconditional consent b. Expressed consent c. Conscious consent d. Implied consent 3

4 23. Your patient is a 40-year-old known diabetic who was found unconscious at work by a coworker. What type of consent allows you to treat this patient? a. Consent for treatment of minor emergencies b. Consent for mentally incompetent adults c. Expressed consent d. Implied consent 24. In which of the following situations should an EMT withhold resuscitative measures from a patient in cardiac arrest? a. The patient's caregiver presents a DNR order signed by the patient and his physician. b. The EMT's religious beliefs permit withholding resuscitation, and the caregiver presents documentation of the patient's wishes. c. Family members request that nothing be done. d. All of the above 25. In which of the following situations is it legal to share information about treatment you provided to a patient? a. The triage nurse at the emergency department asks about the care you provided to the patient. b. The patient gives verbal consent to release information to a friend. c. The patient's lawyer requests the information over the phone. d. You are asked by a coworker who knows the patient. 26. Which of the following requires training, policies, and procedures related to storing, accessing, and sharing patient information? a. HIPAA b. HIAPA c. EMTALA d. COBRA 27. Which of the following BEST describes the anatomical position? a. Supine with arms crossed over the chest and knees slightly bent b. Standing, facing forward, with arms raised above the head c. Standing, facing forward, with arms at the side, palms forward d. Standing in profile with the hands on the hips 28. The inside of a person's thigh is also known as its aspect. a. inferior b. lateral c. medial d. axillary 29. A patient with bilateral femur fractures would have which of the following? a. Two fractures in the same femur b. A femur fracture occurring with little or no trauma c. A femur fracture in which the bone ends have punctured the muscle and skin of the thigh d. Fractures of both femurs 4

5 30. The elbow is to the wrist. a. medial b. inferior c. proximal d. dorsal 31. Which of the following describes Fowler's position? a. Lying flat on the back b. Lying on the side c. Lying on the stomach d. Sitting upright with the legs straight 32. Which of the following structures closes over the trachea to protect it during swallowing? a. Pharynx b. Epiglottis c. Cricoid cartilage d. Diaphragm 33. Which of the following structures receives deoxygenated blood from the body via the vena cavae? a. Right ventricle b. Left ventricle c. Right atrium d. Left atrium 34. An artery is a blood vessel that only: a. returns blood to the heart. b. carries oxygenated blood. c. carries deoxygenated blood. d. carries blood away from the heart. 35. The pressure against the walls of the blood vessels as blood is ejected from the heart and circulates through the body is the blood pressure. a. systolic b. diastolic c. central venous d. mean arterial 36. Which of the following is a function of the skin? a. Regulation of body temperature b. Regulation of salt and water balance c. Protection from the environment d. All of the above 37. The study of how disease affects the functioning of the human body is called: a. psychology. b. physiology. c. pathophysiology. d. anatomy. 5

6 38. The process by which glucose and other nutrients are converted into energy is called: a. catabolism. b. respiration. c. metabolism. d. depolarization. 39. The basic nutrient of the cell and the building block for energy is: a. glucose. b. protein. c. oxygen. d. water. 40. This type of metabolism occurs when energy is created with a balance of adequate oxygen and nutrients. a. Anaerobic b. Aerobic c. Hypoxic d. Homeostatic 41. A patient breathing in room air should be receiving percent oxygen. a. 21 b. 5 c. 16 d What is the correct order of air flow from the nose to the alveoli in the lungs? a. Nose, pharynx, hypopharynx, epiglottis, trachea, crania, mainstem bronchi, alveoli b. Mouth, pharynx, epiglottis, hypopharynx, trachea, mainstem bronchi, crania, alveoli c. Nose, nasopharynx, pharynx, hypopharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, alveoli d. Nose, hyperpharynx, pharynx, hypopharynx, trachea, mainstem bronchi, bronchi, alveoli 43. Which of the following describes the path blood takes as it leaves the heart and then returns? a. Veins, venules, capillaries, arterioles, arteries b. Arteries, venules, capillaries, arterioles, veins c. Veins, arteries, capillaries, venules, arterioles d. Arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins 44. What will stroke volume and minute heart rate determine? a. Contractility b. Blood pressure c. Systemic vascular resistance d. Cardiac output 6

7 45. The sympathetic nervous response causes which of the following to occur? a. Breathe slower and deeper, blood vessels to dilate, heart to beat stronger and faster, skin to sweat, pupils to constrict, and skin to become pale b. Breathe faster and deeper, blood vessels to constrict, heart to beat stronger and faster, skin to sweat, pupils to dilate, and skin to become pale c. Breathe faster and deeper, blood vessels to constrict, heart to beat stronger and faster, skin to sweat, pupils to constrict, and skin to become warm d. Breathe faster and deeper, blood vessels to dilate, heart to beat stronger and slower, skin to sweat, pupils to dilate, and skin to become pale 46. The layer of covering that protects the nervous system is called the: a. skull. b. spinal column. c. meninges. d. cerebrospinal fluid. 47. You are assessing a 6-month-old female patient who, according to the parents, is not acting normally. At this stage of development, the patient should be able to do which of the following? a. Sit alone on the floor b. Sit upright in a high chair c. Pull herself up to a standing position d. Respond with the word "no" 48. Which of the following would be a normal set of vitals for a 2-year-old male patient? a. Heart rate 140/minute, respiratory rate 30/minute, and systolic blood pressure of 60 mmhg b. Heart rate 100/minute, respiratory rate 34/minute, and systolic blood pressure of 100 mmhg c. Heart rate 60/minute, respiratory rate 24/minute, and systolic blood pressure of 90 mmhg d. Heart rate 110/minute, respiratory rate 24/minute, and systolic blood pressure of 80 mmhg 49. In which age group do you anticipate seeing patients who have less efficient cardiovascular systems and a reduction of blood volume? a. Geriatric patient b. Late adulthood c. Early adulthood d. Middle adulthood 50. The transition from childhood to adulthood is known as which of the following? a. Transitional b. Young adult c. Adolescent d. Early adulthood 51. Which of the following is a sign of an inadequate airway? a. Regular chest movements b. Nasal flaring c. Equal expansion of both sides of the chest when patient inhales d. Typical skin coloration 7

8 52. The point at which the trachea divides into the two mainstem bronchi is called the: a. carina. b. sternal notch. c. xiphoid process. d. hypopharynx. 53. Which of the following is an advantage of using a nasopharyngeal airway? a. It eliminates the need for manual positioning of the patient's head to keep the airway open. b. It is ideal for patients with a suspected skull fracture. c. It may be tolerated by many patients with a gag reflex. d. All of the above 54. Your patient, in whom you have inserted an oropharyngeal airway, is beginning to regain consciousness and develop a gag reflex. Which of the following is the proper way of managing this situation? a. Pull the airway out slightly to keep it away from the back of the throat. b. Use gentle manual pressure to keep the patient from expelling the airway. c. Turn the patient on her side and remove the airway. d. Spray a topical anesthetic into the throat to prevent the gag reflex from being stimulated. 55. Which of the following is a disadvantage of oropharyngeal airways? a. They cannot be used in patients with a suspected skull fracture. b. They do not come in pediatric sizes. c. They require the use of a water-soluble lubricant. d. They cannot be used in a patient with a gag reflex. 56. Which of the following is true concerning the procedure for inserting a nasopharyngeal airway? a. The bevel should be turned toward the nasal septum. b. If a water-soluble lubricant is not available, a silicon spray can be substituted. c. It can only be placed in the right nostril. d. The length of the device is not as important as it is with oropharyngeal airways. 57. To be effective, a suction unit must be able to generate air flow of liters per minute and create a vacuum of mmhg. a. 300; 30 b. 30; 30 c. 300; 330 d. 30; Which of the following is the correct method of suctioning? a. Suction intermittently, both while inserting and withdrawing the suction tip or catheter. b. Insert the catheter or tip to the desired depth prior to applying suction. c. Begin suctioning as you insert the suction tip or catheter into the mouth. d. Suction continuously, both while inserting and withdrawing the suction tip or catheter. 59. For life to be maintained, a balance of oxygen and carbon dioxide is needed. The condition when oxygen levels are low is called: a. hypotension. b. hypercarbia. c. hyperventilation. d. hypoxia. 8

9 60. The normal stimulus to breathe is stimulated by the chemoreceptors that measure the change of what two gases? a. Low hydrogen and high carbon monoxide b. High carbon monoxide and low oxygen c. High hydrogen and low carbon dioxide d. High carbon dioxide and low oxygen 61. Which of the following patients does NOT require the administration of supplemental oxygen? a. A 60-year-old woman with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who can speak two or three words at a time without a breath b. A 6-year-old male with a history of asthma whose breath sounds are silent and who is drowsy c. A 31-year-old male who is unresponsive due to an overdose of narcotics d. A 24-year-old woman who is breathing 28 times per minute after being in an argument with her husband 62. What signs and symptoms would indicate inadequate breathing in a patient? a. Increased effort to breathe, increased depth of respiration, pink dry skin, normal mental status b. Rapid breathing, pale skin, and a normal mental status c. Decreased depth of respiration, decreased rate of breathing, hot clammy skin, normal mental status d. Increased effort to breathe, cyanosis, cool clammy skin, altered mental status 63. Why is inhalation described as an active process? a. It requires the diaphragm to relax and use energy to move, creating a positive pressure. b. It requires chest muscles to relax and use energy to move, creating a positive pressure. c. It requires chest muscles to contract and use energy to move, creating a negative pressure. d. It uses oxygen to assist chest muscles to contract, creating a negative pressure. 64. To calculate the minute volume, you need to multiply what two measurements? a. Tidal volume and respiratory rate b. Alveolar ventilation and respiratory rate c. Alveolar ventilation and respiratory rate d. Tidal volume and dead space air 65. Which of the following is the best device to deliver high-concentration oxygen to a breathing patient? a. Simple face mask b. Nonrebreather mask c. Nasal cannula d. Oropharyngeal airway 66. A 16-year-old patient presents with labored breathing and increased respiratory rate, increased heart rate, and leaning forward with his hands on his knees. His skin is pink and his pulse oximetry is 96. This patient is suffering from respiratory: a. failure. b. hypoxia. c. distress. d. arrest. 9

10 67. Which of the following statements BEST describes the exchange of gas in the alveoli? a. Blood moves by way of the pulmonary capillaries, air arrives at the alveoli, and osmosis occurs. b. Blood moves from the left heart to the lungs, air arrives in the alveoli sacks, and diffusion occurs. c. Air moves into the airway, blood arrives via the pulmonary veins, and osmosis occurs. d. Air moves into the alveoli, blood is transported by the pulmonary capillaries, and diffusion occurs. 68. You have arrived at the scene of a call for a "man down." As you enter the residence you note that your patient is a male in his mid-60s who is awake but does not seem to acknowledge your presence. He is perspiring profusely, has cyanosis of his ears and lips, and has rapid, shallow respirations. Which of the following should you do first? a. Check for a radial pulse. b. Obtain the patient's medical history. c. Listen to his lung sounds. d. Assist ventilations with a bag-valve mask and supplemental oxygen. 69. When does respiratory distress change to respiratory failure? a. When the respiratory challenge continues, the systems fail with the demand for oxygen, pupils dilate, and the skin becomes hot and dry. b. When the patient who is short of breath, with noisy respiration, presents in the tripod position but then suddenly has the condition clear up and return to normal. c. When the compensatory mechanism is no longer needed and the patient goes into arrest. d. When the respiratory challenge continues, the systems cannot keep up with the demand, and skin color and mental status change. 70. The safe residual for an oxygen cylinder is psi. a. 200 b. 300 c. 500 d. 1, Which of the following is necessary to deliver oxygen to patients at a safe pressure? a. Filter b. Float ball c. Regulator d. Flowmeter 72. The oxygen flow rate for a nasal cannula should not exceed liters per minute. a. 8 b. 4 c. 6 d. 2 10

11 73. Your patient is a 55-year-old man with a history of chronic bronchitis. You have been called to his home today because of an increase in his level of respiratory distress. The patient is on 2 liters per minute of oxygen by nasal cannula at home. Your assessment reveals difficulty speaking due to shortness of breath, leaning forward to breathe, a productive cough, and a respiratory rate of 32 per minute. Which of the following is true concerning the best course of action for this patient? a. Because increased blood levels of carbon dioxide are the primary stimulus to breathe, you should encourage the patient to rebreathe his exhaled air from a paper bag. b. You should increase the patient's oxygen flow rate to deliver adequate amounts of oxygen to his tissues. If his respiratory rate decreases, you can assist him with a bag-valve-mask device. c. You should increase the patient's oxygen flow rate until his respiratory rate decreases and then resume oxygen administration at 2 liters per minute. d. You should not increase the patient's oxygen flow rate because of his likely dependence on a hypoxic drive to stimulate breathing. 74. A nonrebreather mask at liters per minute can deliver to the patient what percent of oxygen? a b c d Before applying a nonrebreather mask, the EMT should take what action? a. Insert the proper venture to receive the correct oxygen concentration. b. Connect the mask to a humidified oxygen source and observe for the heart rate to slow. c. Make sure the oxygen supply has greater than 200 psi in the tank. d. Inflate the reservoir bag and make sure the bag does not deflate during inspiration. 11