Biology 232 Final. 7. Which of the following lists the elements of the heart s conduction system in the correct order? Name

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1 Biology 232 Final Name 1. The heart is located within the: a) mediastinum b) pleural cavity c) pericardial cavity 2. Which of the following is not part of cardiac muscle histology: a) striations b) intercalated disks c) gap junctions d) branched cells e) multiple (more than 5) nuclei per cell 3. Blood flows from the pulmonary veins into the: a) pulmonary arteries b) right atrium c) lungs d) left atrium e) left ventricle 4. The bicuspid (mitral) valve is located between the: a) right ventricle and aorta b) right ventricle and pulmonary trunk c) left atrium and left ventricle d) right and left atria e) right and left ventricles 5. The function of the chordae tendineae is to: a) pull the walls of the ventricles inward during contraction b) open the AV valves c) open the semilunar valves d) prevent inversion of the AV valves during ventricular systole e) hold the heart in place within the mediastinum 6. A blockage of the acute marginal branch of the coronary circulation would most affect the: a) right atrium b) right ventricle c) pericardium d) left atrium e) left ventricle 7. Which of the following lists the elements of the heart s conduction system in the correct order? a) SA node, AV bundle, bundle branches, AV node, b) AV node, SA node, AV bundle, bundle branches, c) SA node, AV node, AV bundle, bundle branches, d), AV bundle, bundle branches, AV node, SA node e) SA node, AV bundle, AV node, bundle branches, 8. During the cardiac cycle, the atria contract when they are directly stimulated by the: a) SA node b) AV node c) d) bundle branches e) vagus nerve 9. On an EKG, depolarization of the atria is represented by the: a) P wave b) T wave c) QRS complex d) P-Q interval e) S-T segment 10. Cardiac muscle fibers remain depolarized longer than skeletal muscle fibers because: a) voltage-gated sodium channels close more quickly to trap sodium inside the cell longer b) voltage-gated calcium channels open slightly after the sodium channels open c) voltage-gated potassium channels open slightly after the sodium channels open d) voltage-gated sodium, calcium and potassium channels open all at the same time e) the chordae tendinae hold the myocardium in an open state 11. On an EKG, repolarization of the ventricles is represented by the: a) P wave b) T wave c) QRS complex d) P-Q interval e) S-T segment

2 12. During isovolumetric contraction, which of the following heart valves are open? a) aortic valve b) AV valves c) pulmonary valve e) none of the above 13. During ventricular systole: a) blood pressure in the aorta increases b) blood pressure in the aorta decreases c) cardiac output decreases d) the ventricles fill with blood e) there is no change in blood pressure 14. The second heart sound (dupp) is due to: a) closing of the AV valves b) opening of the AV valves c) vibration of the chordae tendinae d) opening of the semilunar valves e) closing of the semilunar valves 15. Which of the following would decrease the stroke volume? a) increased preload b) increased afterload c) stimulation of the heart by the sympathetic nervous system 16. If someone had a decreased stroke volume, what would the heart have to do in order to maintain the same cardiac output? a) decrease the heart rate b) increase the heart rate c) increase the afterload d) a and c 17. The cardiovascular center is located in the: a) thalamus b) hypothalamus c) midbrain d) pons e) medulla oblongata 19. Valves are present in: a) arteries b) arterioles c) veins d) capillaries 20. The vessels responsible for maintaining a constant flow of blood during ventricular diastole are called: a) elastic arteries b) muscular arteries c) arterioles d) veins e) capillaries 21. Vasomotion is best defined as: a) movement of the arteriole due to changes in pulse pressure b) opening and closing of precapillary sphincters to alter blood flow through a capillary bed c) constriction of veins in response to low blood pressure d) movement of vaso vasorum e) a new dance move 22. Which of the following is not found in veins? a) internal elastic lamina b) tunica media c) external elastic lamina d) tunica externa (adventitia) e) both a and c 23. At rest, which of the following contains the most blood: a) venous system b) arterial system c) capillaries d) heart e) pulmonary vasculature 24. Vascular resistance depends on: a) size of the lumen of the blood vessel b) viscosity of the blood c) total blood vessel length 18. The tunica interna of a blood vessel is made of: a) smooth muscle b) cardiac muscle c) skeletal muscle d) endothelium e) dense connective tissue

3 25. The most common type of capillary is the: a) continuous b) fenestrated c) sinusoid d) lumbar e) tubular 26. Which of the following vessels would have the fastest rate of blood flow? a) aorta as it exits the heart b) superior vena cava before it enters the heart c) arterioles d) capillaries have the same rate of flow 27. Venous return from the lower extremities is aided by which of the following? a) respiritory pump b) skeletal muscle pump c) valves preventing backflow 28. Baroreceptors are located in the: a) wall of the right ventricle b) medulla oblongata c) SA node d) walls of the aorta and carotid arteries e) wall of the superior vena cava 29. Which of the following hormones lowers blood pressure? a) antidiuretic hormone (ADH) b) epinephrine c) atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) d) aldosterone e) angiotensin II 30. Cardiogenic shock is due to: a) inability of the heart to maintain cardiac output b) sudden expansion of the blood vessels c) blockage of arterial blood flow d) depleted intravascular volume e) Kramerica Industries 31. A portal system contains how many separate capillary beds? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) The compisition of lymphatic fluid is similar to: a) plasma b) serum c) cytosol d) interstitial fluid e) cerebrospinal fluid 33. The thoracic duct empties lymph into the: a) right lymphatic duct b) cisterna chyli c) left subclavian vein d) ventricles of the brain e) right atrium of the heart 34. Which of the following is a function of the lymphatic system? a) drain excess interstitial fluid b) transport dietary lipids and vitamins from the GI tract to the blood c) participate in the immune response d) a and c 35. Which of the following is considered to be a primary lymphatic organ? a) red bone marrow b) spleen c) lymph nodes d) pharyngeal tonsil e) liver 36. Which of the following statements about lymphatic nodules is not true? a) they are surrounded by a capsule b) they are also known as Mucosa Associated Lymphoid Tissue c) they make up structures called Peyer s patches in the intestines d) they can be found in the tonsils statements are true 37. Which of the following would most likely increase a person s risk of invasion by pathogenic microbes? a) increased urine flow b) loss of large areas of epidermal tissue c) increased action of cillia d) increased intestinal motility

4 38. Which of the following is not part of nonspecific immunity to disease? a) inflammation b) fever c) binding of antibody to antigen d) bacteriocidal chemicals in the skin are part of nonspecific immunity 39. Plasma cells are derived from: a) helper T cells b) B cells c) killer T cells d) macrophages e) antigen presenting cells 40. T cell maturation occurs in what area of the lymphatic system? a) spleen b) liver c) thymus d) lymph nodes 41. An antigen is: a) part of a T cell that reconizes foreign tissue b) part of a B cell that reconizes foreign tissue c) a chemical that is recognized as foreign by T and B cells d) synonamus with a hapten e) usually a very small molecule (like water) 42. Which of the following statements about antibodies is not true? a) they are made up of 4 polypeptide chains b) they contain a variable region for binding antigen c) they are produced by T cells and released into the blood d) classes of antibodies include: IgG, IgA, IgD and IgM are true 44. Antigen presenting cells activate T cells by: a) releasing antigen next to the killer T cell b) presenting the antigen in combination with an MHC I molecule c) presenting the antigen in combination with an MHC II molecule d) phyagocytizing the killer T cell e) performing an interpretive dance 45. Which of the following is not a result of activating the complement system? a) formation of memory cells b) inflammation c) opsonization d) cytolysis e) chemotaxis 46. Someone does not become ill from a second exposure to the chicken pox virus because: a) of a previously activated complement system b) of a disabled complement system c) memory B cells quickly activte upon exposure to the virus d) antigen presenting cells quickly destroy the virus e) these pretzels are making me thirsty 47. The first class of antibodies to be released during the primary immune response is: a) IgA b) IgD c) IgE d) IgG e) IgM 43. Presentation of an endogenous antigen bound to an MHC-I molecule signals that: a) everything is normal b) the cell has differentiated into a plasma cell c) a helper T cell has been activated d) a phagocyte has processed the antigen e) a cell has been infected with an intracellular pathogen

5 1. a 2. e 3. d 4. c 5. d 6. b 7. c 8. a 9. a 10. b 11. b 12. e 13. a 14. e 15. b 16. b 17. e 18. d 19. c 20. a 21. b 22. e 26. a 27. e 28. d 29. c 30. a 31. b 32. d 33. c 34. e 35. a 36. a 37. b 38. c 39. b 40. c 41. c 42. c 43. e 44. c 45. a 46. c 47. e 23. a 24. e 25. a