Exam #1 (Chapters 1.5-5) Study Guide

Transcription

1 Exam #1 (Chapters 1.5-5) Study Guide Chapter Research conducted for the purpose of verifying previous experimental findings is called: Replication 2. A Research method in which a representative group of people are questioned about their behaviors or attitudes is called: A survey 3. When researchers want to be sure that known subgroups of the population are represented proportionally in the research, a sample is used. Representative 4. The study quoted in the text by Loftus indicating the different estimates of number of headaches per week is an example of which limitation of survey research? Bias in the design of the questions 5. A method of scientific investigation that studies the relationships between variables is called: Correlational 6. As a person ages, his or her physical strength declines. The relationship between strength and age will show a coefficient of correlation. Negative 7. The major advantage of the experimental method is that it: Allows the researcher control of the conditions. 8. Why does the experimental research method use the experimental/control group set up? To provide a source of comparison. 9. If you add up all the scores and divide by the number of scores, the result is the: Mean 10. We, as researchers, must specify precisely what we mean by terms we use. This specific precision is known as: An operational definition 11. A thorough investigation of a suicide victim's past and state of mind is called a psychological postmortem. The research method he or she would use would be: A case study

2 12. A positive correlation indicates that the variables vary together in the: Same direction 13. A telephone survey of voters of the 1936 presidential election was not a true random sample because: Only higher socioeconomic status Americans had telephones 14. The is an imperfect measure of variability because it is influenced by extreme scores. Range 15. Who decides whether the benefits of a potential research study outweigh the possibility of harm to the subjects? An institutional ethics committee. 16. The interview has the advantage over the questionnaire because the interview is: More flexible 17. A negative correlation indicates that the variables vary together in the: Opposite direction 18. A research method which consists of manipulating some environmental event in order to observe the effects of the manipulation on the behavior of the subjects under controlled conditions is called a/an: Experiment 19. A researcher is interested in testing how cohabitation and martial stability are related. What type of research method should be used? A correlational study 20. Which of the following is a limitation of the experimental method? It is not always possible for the researcher to manipulate the variable of interest. 21. Why is it inappropriate to discuss casualties from a correlational study? Because of the lack of precise control over factors that may influence behavior. 22. Which of the research studies below is an example of research for the purpose of solving a problem? A. A researcher predicts that there is a relationship between coming to class on Friday and good grades. B. A researcher is interested in how coming to class on Friday could be related to good grades. C. A researcher conducts the same study at a new college to see if the results differ. D. None of the above. *Answer: None of the above* 23. It is difficult if not impossible to generalize from case studies because:

3 Proper sampling is rarely if ever used. 24. If an experiment varies the loudness of music in a factory to observe its effect upon the rate of productivity, the dependent variable is the: Rate of productivity 25. Case study research has the advantage of: Using many different methods to gather the information 26. The median is the: Score beneath which 50 percent of the scores fall. 27. You have a "hunch" or an educated guess that vitamin C enhances IQ, and you intend to research it. Your "hunch" is called: A hypothesis 28. An observer records frustration as the reason for a child's inactivity when the child was actually just thinking of what to do. This is an example of: Observer bias 29. A/an group is a group of subjects who experience all the same conditions as do subjects in the experimental group except for the key factor the researcher is evaluating. Control 30. When scientists conclude that a research is statistically significant, they are merely stating, at a high level of confidence, that the difference is attributable to the: Experimental condition 31. Most of the problems with survey research can be overcome if the researchers: 1) Take care in their sample selection 2) Do not attempt to generalize beyond the population that the survey sample was selected 3) Place a considerable amount of thought into selection of survey questions. 32. Operational definitions refer to: A clear description of the concepts, in terms of the methods being used to measure them. 33. A clinical psychologist notes that an unusually large number of obese people are depressed and anxious, and he offers an explanation that excess weight causes emotional disturbances and plans to conduct a research investigation into this matter. Research to test a hypothesis 34. A representative sample assures researchers that: Subgroups are represented proportionally. Chapter 2 1. When a neuron is at rest, the membrane is said to be in a polarized state; this means that: The neuron is in a state of readiness, waiting to be activated. 2. Endorphins are:

4 Neurotransmitters that are chemically similar to opiates. 3. Drugs that slow down or depress activity in the CNS are known as: Depressants 4. The degree to which a particular function is controlled by one rather then the other hemisphere is referred to in the text as: Lateralization of function. 5. Electroencephalography (EEG) is a technique used in studying the brain by: Placing electrodes outside the brain and thereby monitoring brain wave activity. 6. The autonomic nervous system regulates: Involuntary activities. 7. The event that initiates the release of transmitter substances from the terminal buttons of the axon is the: Action potential 8. The portion of the brain most closely associated with emotional expression is the: Limbic system 9. All neurons share four common structures: the cell body, dendrites, axon, and the: Terminal buttons 10. The occipital lobe consists primarily of the: Association cortex 11. The synaptic vesicles of the terminal buttons contain: Neurotransmitters 12. Ronnie is undergoing brain surgery. While the surgeon is probing around his cortex, Ronnie reports feeling a tingling sensation in his left hand. Where in Ronnie's brain has the surgeon stimulated? Right parietal lobe 13. A patient whose hippocampus has been completely removed from both sides of his brain will be unable to: Remember the name of a new friend. 14. The all-or-none principle refers to the fact that: A neuron transmits an impulse of the same strength each time it fires. 15. The fight or flight response is a direct result of the activation of the: Sympathetic nervous system. 16. When you touch a rough surface, the sensation is carried to the central nervous system by the nerves. Afferent

5 17. In order for a substance to be classified as a neurotransmitter, it must meet certain criteria; these do not include: Causing an action potential when released into the synapse. 18. The wrinkles, convolutions and fissures in the cerebral cortex: Allow more nerve cells to be packed into the brain. 19. If a patient had severe damage to the frontal lobe, you might predict he or she might also have: Impaired decision-making and problem-solving abilities. 20. Some people who are lethargic and have little motivation may suffer from a condition of low thyroid secretion known as: Hypothyroidism 21. Which brain structure seems to be linked to the sleep cycles and possibly to dreaming? The reticular activating system 22. If you hit your thumb with a hammer, which nervous system initiates the message to your brain? The somatic nervous system 23. A gunshot wound to the back of the head would cause the victim to be permanently unable to maintain motor coordination. The part of the brain that would be damaged is the: Cerebellum 24. The gland in the endocrine system, located directly below the hypothalamus, that produces a number of hormones, many of which trigger other endocrine glands to release hormones, is the: Pituitary gland 25. For an action potential to occur: EPSPs must predominate to the point of bringing the cell to the threshold of hyperpolarization. 26. When an object is placed unseen in the right hand of a split brain patient, the patient will: Be able to describe it. 27. Broca's area of the brain can usually be found in the lobe of the brain. Left frontal 28. The hallucinogens are classified as such because of the changes they produce in sensory perceptions, thinking, and emotions of the individual user. Drugs in this category include: LSD and psilocybin 29. Damage to the occipital lobe may cause: Partial or complete blindness 30. Inhibitory neurotransmitters influence receiving neurons to: Not fire 31. If action potential follows the all-or-none principle, how is it possible for us to distinguish between different levels of stimulus intensity?

6 The number of neurons affected changes. By frequency at which a single neuron fires. 32. Many neural axons are tightly wrapped with a fatty, which fiber known as: Myelin 33. Most neurons have only one axon, yet it is said that a single neuron can connect to many other neurons. How does this occur? It is true there is just one axon on most neurons but it generally divides into two or more branches and this allows it to connect to multiple other neurons. 34. Researchers are especially interested in endorphins because of their: Pain reducing qualities 35. Patients with damage to Wernicke's area have sustained damage to the lobe of the cortex and will have trouble. Temporal; understanding speech 36. Noninvasive techniques for studying the brain have the advantage that: 1) They do not require surgery 2) They can be conducted on living organisms 37. Sally is undergoing brain surgery. While the surgeon is probing around her cortex she reports hearing a buzzing sound in her right ear. Where in Sally's brain is the surgeon most likely to be? Left temporal lobe 38. A neuron which a negative charge but is not transmitting an impulse is said to be: At resting potential Chapter 3 1. Stimuli suggestive of the depth that involve simultaneous perception by both eyes are referred to as: Binocular cues 2. Another name for the sense of smell is the: Olfactory sense 3. In the human, the audible range of sound wave frequencies is approximately: 20-20,000 Hz 4. Rods and cones are: Photoreceptors 5. The minimum physical intensity of a stimulus that can be perceived by an observer 50% of the time is the: Absolute threshold 6. "Seeing" what we expect to see is referred to as: Perceptual set 7. Where is the sense of equilibrium localized?

7 Inner ear 8. Visible light is described in terms of: Wavelengths 9. The function of the middle ear is to: Amplify the sound 10. Among mammals, is/are perceived a full range of colors.: Only primates 11. The ability to distinguish sensations does not depend on differences between sense organs but rather: On the part of the brain activated by the sensory messages. 12. What factors influence which of the many physical events that are bombarding each of the sensory systems get transduced into neural information? 1) Sensory thresholds 2) Attention 3) Adaptation 13. In mathematical from Weber's law is stated l=kl, what does this mean in "English"? That the jnd is always a constant fraction of the original stimulus. 14. A person living near an industrial plant producing foul-smelling smoke not notice it after a while because of: Sensory adaptation 15. The sensory system that is slowest to adapt is: Pain 16. Signal detection theory describes two kinds of noise that could interfere with the perception of the sensory stimuli. They are: Internal activity and external environmental stimuli. 17. The is a muscular membrane that regulates the amount of light entering the eye. Iris 18. The focusing process in which the lens adjusts its shape depending on the distance between the eye and the object viewed in order to project a clear image onto the retina is called: Accommodation 19. In very dim, low intensity light, vision is diminished. If we look directly at an object, we may not see it because we are focusing the available light onto the: Fovea, where there are only cones. 20. Mach bands are an example of: Lateral inhibition

8 21. Also known as the Young-Helmholtz theory, the stated that the human eye contains red, green, and blue color receptors which form the basis for our perception of all colors. Trichromatic theory 22. Given our present knowledge about color vision, which theory seems nearer the truth? The trichromatic theory and the Opponent-process theory 23. The pitch difference between various musical notes can be attributed to differences in: The frequency of the sound waves. 24. The correct order which a sound stimulates structures in the ear is: Eardrum, ossicles, oval window, and cochlea. 25. Which theory states that perception of low tones depends on the frequency with which auditory hair cells in the inner ear trigger the firing of neurons in the auditory nerve? Frequency theory 26. Which of the two theories of pitch discrimination is believed to be more accurate by today's perceptual psychologists? Neither Place nor Frequency theory explains pitch discrimination adequately; Place theory is believed to explain the discrimination of higher pitch sound, and frequency theory with the volley principle is believed to explain pitch discrimination of lower frequencies. 27. Which of the following is the theory suggested by most as the probable mechanism that we use to detect differences in odors? Different odors are believed to have different molecular shapes. 28. What is the main component of the gate-control theory of pain that has received wide experimental support? The fact that competing non-pain fibers can close the gate and prevent pain. 29. From what two mechanisms does the body receive information concering equilibrium? Fluid in the semicircular canals of the ear bending hair cells, and the movement of weighted cilia in the vestibular sacs at the junction of the cochlea and semicircular canals. 30. The perceptual organizing principle that predicts that we tend to perceive incomplete figures as complete is known as: Closure 31. The difference in the retinal image of an object as seen from each eye provides an important cue for depth which is called: Binocular disparity 32. When a figure of a person is drawn larger then a house in the same picture to give the perception of distance the artist has used the cue of. Monocular; relative size 33. We know that cars parked on a distant parking lot are not actually the size of toys because of perceptual:

9 Constancy 34. When sensations give rise to misrepresentations, psychologists refer to this as: An illusion Chapter 4 1. A sleep disorder in which people fail to breath regularly during sleep is: Sleep apnea 2. Somnambulism is the technical term for: Sleepwalking 3. When deprived of REM sleep, people later show increased REM sleep activity which is called: REM rebound 4. The EMG measures: Electrical activity in the muscles 5. Circadian rhythms vary around what type of cycle? 24 hours 6. A stage of sleep during which rapid eye movements typically do not occur and dreaming is infrequent is known as: NREM 7. Sleep spindles have been shown to occur during which stage of sleep? Stage 2 8. Research has shown that rats deprived of all sleep for extended periods of time: Die within about a month 9. Freud theorized that dreams reflected: Unconscious wishes 10. Hypnosis is believed by some researchers to be a state of: Heightened suggestibility 11. Nightmares occur during sleep. REM 12. The observation that bats and other animals with highly sensitive visual systems sleep during daylight and humans sleep during darkness when they are most vulnerable supports which theory of sleep function? Sleeping to avoid predation 13. John has been alseep for approximately 40 minutes. His EEG shows that about 30 percent of his brain waves are approximately 1 cycle per second in frequency and have a high amplitude. What stage of sleep is John in? Stage 3

10 14. The two major brain areas believed to be responsible for sleep and wakefulness are: Raphe system and the ascending reticular activating system. 15. Results of sleep deprivation studies in humans have: Have not been nearly as severe as those observed in rats. 16. You have a big biology exam tomorrow. Which would be the most productive activity tonight? Get a good night's sleep after studying hard. 17. If you were to vary the light-dark cycle of a group of laboratory rats by shifting it 6 hours what would happen to the activity of the subjects? They would shift their most active time 6 hours to conform to the new light-dark schedule. 18. You are asked to compare humans and animals as to the types of circadian rhythms that the two display. You would say: Both humans and animals adapt to a 25 hour cycle in the absence of light-dark cues. 19. REM periods of sleep tend to as the night wears on. Lengthen 20. Some research strongly suggests that hypnosis: Is psysiologically no different from the normal conscious state. 21. Freud believed that dreams provided imagery which keeps disturbing thoughts out of awareness. Repressed 22. Which of the following is also known as a "sleep attack"? Narcolepsy 23. What result did Dement and his colleagues observe in REM-deprived subjects? Most subjects showed an increase in REM when they were allowed to sleep. 24. Susan is asleep. Her brain waves indicate high activity, and her blood pressure and heart rate are elevated. Which of the following is she most likely to report if awakened? That she had been dreaming. 25. It is most difficult to be awakened from sleep. Stage Low frequency, high amplitude brain waves that have been linked to relaxed states and drowsiness are called: Alpha 27. In which of the following stages will sleep talking, sleep walking, and night terrors most likely occur? Stage We do not normally "act out" our dreams because:

11 Muscle activity is inhibited by the neurons near the reticular formation of our brainstem. 29. Some cases of may be caused by a thick palate or a defect in the breathing centers of the brain. Sleep apnea 30. Is it dangerous to wake a sleepwalker? No, there isn't any danger. If you are able to awaken sleepwalkers, they will most likely be disoriented. 31. Research depriving people of sleep for up to a week has shown that sleep-deprived individuals: Show no long-term effect 32. Jeb is 63 years old and cannot understand why he wakes up at the slightest noises. Until recently (the last 3 years or so) he had always been a very sound sleeper. How would you explain this problem to Jeb? Jeb is a normal man in his 60s whose stage 4 sleep has diminished as a result of his age. 33. Evidence suggests that hypnosis can: Reduce pain and the symptoms of stress. 34. The most common cause of insomnia has been identified as: Stress Chapter 5 1. The meat placed in a dog's mouth by Pavlov is referred to as the: Unconditioned stimulus 2. In Pavlov's experiment with dogs, if the food (UCS) was presented prior to the ringing of the bell (CS), the technique would be called: Backward conditioning 3. When a learner differentiates between two different stimuli and only responds to the stimuli consistently associated with the UCS, the subjects has demonstrated: Stimulus discrimination 4. When a behavior is followed by a stimulus which increases the frequency of that behavior, the stimulus is called: A reinforcer 5. Which of the following is a primary reinforcer? Food 6. Most behaviors in the real world setting are not reinforced: Continuously 7. Complex behaviors must be taught by, or first reinforcing small steps toward the behavioral goal. Shaping

12 8. Two-factor learning involves: Pavlovian and operant conditioning 9. Why is most research on the neurobiology of learning and memory done in aplysia? The aplysia has a relatively simple nervous system. 10. According to Bandura, the first step involved in observational learning involves: Having our attention drawn to a modeled behavior. 11. What is the definition of learning? 1) It results from experience. 2) It involves a potential change in behavior 3) It is relatively enduring 12. Assuming you have eaten sour pickles before, imagine eating a large juicy sour pickle. If thinking about it causes your mouth to water, then your salivation would be referred to as a/an: Conditioned response 13. In what way does an unconditioned response differ from a conditioned response? The UCR is generally more intense. 14. In Pavlovian conditioning, learning occurs more readily when the CS: Precedes the UCS by.5 seconds. 15. How can the ease with which individuals acquire phobias (in some cases people acquire phobias with a single exposure, while others never acquire a phobia after 100 pairings) be explained? The conditioning stimuli are more intense in some pairings. 16. Extinction of the CR in Pavlovian conditioning occurs when the: CS is repeatedly presented without the UCS 17. A dog taught to salivate when shown a circle also salivates when shown a square. This behavior is referred to as: Generalization 18. A child is knocked down by a large friendly dog and is frightened. Later his sees his grandmother's dog and is frightened. The fear has been: Generalized 19. Your son never throws temper tantrums when he is with you, yet he very easily resports to one when your spouse is in charge. This is an example of: Stimulus discrimination 20. Reinforcers increase the probability that behavior will be: Repeated 21. A reinforcer is: Anything, so long as it increases the possibility that the response preceding it will be repeated.

13 22. Negative reinforcers are defined as stimuli that: Increase the frequency of a response when they are removed. 23. Which type of conditioning is being used if a rat presses a bar in order to turn off an electrical shock? Escape 24. Which of the following is a primary reinforcer? A soft drink 25. A slot machine or "one-armed bandit" increases gambling behavior by: Partial reinforcement 26. Behaviors that are required through partial instead of continuous schedules of reinforcement are: Slower to be established but more resistant to extinction. 27. If a worker gets paid every Friday for completing her 40-hour work week, she is being paid on a schedule. Fixed-interval 28. When speaking of schedules of reinforcement, interval schedules always relate to: Elapsed time between reinforcements 29. Universal Studios wants to train a cat to pull a rope. The likelihood of a cat engaging in this behavior as a normal part of its behavior is very low. Which of the techniques for obtaining the initial response would be the best choice? Shaping 30. Amy is learning to do a back walkover in gym class. Which of the following techniques would be the best technique to use to encourage the desired initial response? Modeling 31. One basic difference between Pavlovian conditioning and operant conditioning is that: In Pavlovian two stimuli are associated, and in operant a response and stimulus are associated. 32. (A) Potential undesirable side effect(s) of punishment is/are: 1) Fear, hostility, and hatred 2) Counter aggression against the punisher 3) Anxiety that may interfere with performance 33. Why is sending a note home to a parent not the most effective method of suppressing undesirable behavior? The association between the response and thee punishment needs to be immediate. 34. Being able to familiarize oneself with the streets of a town, and then one day being able to go to a certain place (hospital, police station) easily, although that route had never been taken before, is an example of what type of learning? Latent learning

14 35. What type of learning is not mechanically acquired through reinforcement and in which overt responses may not be a result? Observational learning