Applied Human Biology for Exercise and Fitness Level 3 J/615/3220 MOCK PAPER

Transcription

1 Applied Human Biology for Exercise and Fitness Level 3 J/615/3220 MOCK PAPER There are 40 questions within this paper. To achieve a pass you will need to score 28 out of 40 marks. All questions are multiple choice and there is only ONE correct answer. To record your answers to each question please follow the instructions on your answer sheet. You may use blank sheets of paper for notes and calculations if required. Please DO NOT write on this paper. Time Allowed - 90 minutes.

2 1. Which posture is characterised by a lengthened lower trapezius and rhomboids? A Lower crossed syndrome B Upper crossed syndrome C Military posture D Flat back posture 2. What movement is possible at the joint formed by the radius and ulnar? A Elevation B Supination C Adduction D Rotation 3. What are the component parts of a motor unit? A A motor neuron and its muscle fibres B A motor neuron and an inter neuron C A motor neuron and a sensory neuron D A motor neuron and its end plates 4. What plane of motion does most movement in a traditional forward lunge occur? A Frontal B Longitudinal C Transverse D Sagittal 5. Which digestive organ produces juices containing enzymes that break down fats, proteins and carbohydrates? A Pancreas B Liver C Gall bladder D Stomach

3 6. Which broad rotator cuff muscle originates below the spine of the scapula on the posterior surface of the scapula? A Teres minor B Supraspinatus C Infraspinatus D Subscapularis 7. What is the function of the pulmonary semilunar valve? A Prevent backflow of blood into the right ventricle B Prevent backflow of blood into the right atrium C Prevent backflow of blood into the left ventricle D Prevent backflow of blood into the left atrium 8. What type of training is most likely to increase a client's chance of experiencing delayed onset muscle soreness? A A long slow duration run B A resistance workout that includes negative sets C A muscular endurance resistance workout D A regular aerobic swim session 9. Which nervous subsystem controls voluntary functions? A Somatic B Peripheral C Central D Autonomic 10. What would happen to systolic and diastolic blood pressure if exercises included sustained isometric contractions? A Significant increase B Significant decrease C No change D Rapid fluctuations

4 11. Which of the following describes a part of pulmonary blood flow? A Deoxygenated blood moves from the arterioles into the arteries B Deoxygenated blood moves from the venules into the veins C Deoxygenated blood moves from the arteries to the arterioles D Deoxygenated blood moves from the veins into the venules 12. What type of training would be most advisable for a client who was looking to increase the efficiency of their cardiovascular system? A Muscular endurance training B Hypertrophy training C Aerobic endurance training D Isometric training 13. What are the small contractile units that are aligned lengthways to form a myofibril? A Actin B Sarcomere C Myosin D Fascicle 14. What is the role of peristalsis? A To absorb nutrients B To propel food through the GI tract C To break down protein into amino acids D To store faeces 15. Where are hormones released from? A Endocrine glands B Exocrine glands C Paracrine glands D Lymph glands

5 16. What is recruited when fine motor control is required? A Large motor units B Mixed motor units C Small motor units D Sensory motor units 17. What is a blood pressure reading of 145/92mmHg categorised as? A Normal B Stage 1 hypertension C Stage 2 hypertension D Stage 3 hypertension 18. What happens in an antagonist muscle when the stretch reflex is initiated? A The muscle contracts and lengthens B The muscle contracts and shortens C The muscle relaxes and lengthens D The muscle relaxes and shortens 19. Which branch of the circulatory system supplies blood to the heart muscle? A Systolic B Pulmonary C Coronary D Systemic 20. Which gland can be found in the upper abdomen and also forms part of the digestive system? A Pancreas B Thyroid C Hypothalamus D Ovaries

6 21. What would regularly performing exercises with poor technique increase the risk of? A Osteoporosis B Hypertension C Hyperglycaemia D Osteoarthritis 22. Gluteus maximus inserts onto the femur and what soft tissue structure? A Anterior cruciate ligament B Iliotibial band C Thoracolumbar fascia D Achilles tendon 23. When reaching down to deadlift a bar from the floor what type of contraction is the rectus femoris producing? A Eccentric B Concentric C Isometric D Isokinetic 24. How would power be increased by training the nervous system? A Less neural stimulation would be required to produce powerful movements B Fewer neurons would be required to stimulate the motor units C Ability to coordinate motor unit recruitment would be increased D Ability to alternate motor units recruited would be increased 25. What is the component of tendons that gives them their extensibility? A Collagen B Epimysium C Elastin D Relaxin

7 26. Which gland releases thyroxine and calcitonin? A Thyroid B Adrenal C Pancreas D Ovaries 27. What do type 1 fibres contain a high quantity of, which enables them to work for long periods with oxygen? A Sarcomeres B Actin C Myosin D Mitochondria 28. What can develop if the body's sensitivity to insulin is affected by a highfat, high-sugar diet? A Joint instability B Type 2 diabetes C Enlarged thyroid D Male characteristics 29. Which hormone stimulates protein synthesis in muscle tissue? A Insulin B Thyroxine C Noradrenaline D Growth hormone 30. Which muscle would be over-trained if a client started to show signs of a flat back? A Erector spinae B Pectoralis major C Latissimus dorsi D Rectus abdominis

8 31. What role is played by troponin and tropomyosin in the sliding filament theory? A Block actin-binding sites on myosin B Trigger the release of calcium into the sarcoplasm C Trigger the release of the sarcoplasmic reticulum D Block myosin-binding sites on actin 32. Weakness in which muscle can cause knee pain by creating abnormal pull on the patella? A Gastrocnemius B Vastus medialis C Adductor magnus D Gluteus medialis 33. What is the function of the myelin sheath? A To release neurotransmitters B To speed up action potential transmission C To regulate cell activity D To carry incoming action potentials 34. What has been shown to increase the levels of high-density lipoproteins, which over time can have a positive effect on blood pressure? A Long-term maximal strength training B Short-term maximal strength training C Short-term aerobic endurance training D Long-term aerobic endurance training 35. Movements in the transverse plane of motion occur around which axis? A Medial-lateral B Anterior-posterior C Longitudinal D Coronal

9 36. Which muscle eccentrically contracts during the lowering phase of a calf raise? A Biceps femoris B Tibialis anterior C Gracilis D Gastrocnemius 37. What is the collective term for the muscle spindles and golgi tendon organs? A Nociceptors B Neurons C Axons D Proprioceptors 38. What process enables the agonist to contract without opposing resistance from the antagonist? A Autogenic inhibition B Reciprocal inhibition C Autogenic activation D Reciprocal activation 39. Which molecule is reattached to ADP during energy re-synthesis? A Phosphate B Creatine C Lactate D Oxygen 40. What is the first stage of atherosclerosis development? A Complicated lesion development B Plaque builds up in artery wall C Simple lesion rupture D Inflammatory response to damage