101 MOCK QUESTIONS. Level 3 Anatomy & Physiology

Transcription

1 Level 3 Anatomy & Physiology Practice Mock Multiple Choice Questions Become Familiar with Exam Question Wording Supercharge Your Understanding of Anatomy and Physiology Cover All 7 Modules of A&P content Feel Confident to Pass First Time 1

2 Answer the following mock questions And then check your answers at the very end. Q1. What are the valves that prevent back flow of blood between the chambers of the heart called? A. Atrioventricular B. Semilunar C. Arteriovenous D. Aortic Q2. Which branch of the circulatory system supplies blood to the heart muscle? A. Systolic B. Pulmonary C. Coronary D. Systemic Q3. What is a component of the plaques that form on artery walls in atherosclerosis? A. Vasodilation B. Vasoconstriction C. High density lipoproteins D. Low density lipoproteins Q4. What is the immediate effect of the valsalva manoeuvre? A. No change to blood pressure B. Decreases blood pressure C. Increases blood pressure D. Decreases heart rate 2

3 Q5. What does chronic hypertension increase the risk of developing? A. Angina B. Asthma C. Acidosis D. Arrhythmia Q6. What is a myofibre? A. Actin B. Myosin C. A myofilament D. A muscle cell Q7. What makes up 7% of skeletal muscle? A. Water B. Minerals C. Protein D. Glycogen Q8. According to sliding filament theory, what do the myosin heads bind onto? A. Myoglobin B. Calcium C. Actin D. ADP Q9. Which muscle fibre type contains the greatest number of mitochondria? A. Type 1 B. Type 2a C. Type 2b D. Fast twitch Q10. What muscle attaches the iliac crest to the 12th rib and lumbar vertebrae? A. Erector spinae B. Psoas major C. Multifidus D. Quadratus lumborum 3

4 Q11. Which muscle helps to hold the head of humerus into the glenoid cavity of the scapula? A. Supraspinatus B. Serratus anterior C. Pectoralis minor D. Levator scapulae Q12. What muscle crosses the ankle and knee joints? A. Tibialis anterior B. Peroneus longus C. Gastrocnemius D. Soleus Q13. Which muscle is deep to erector spinae? A. Rectus abdominis B. Quadratus lumborum C. External obliques D. Internal obliques Q14. Which muscle internally rotates and extends the humerus at the shoulder joint? A. Trapezius B. Pectoralis major C. Rhomboid major D. Latissimus dorsi Q15. Which joint action occurs when the sole of the foot turns outwards? A. External rotation B. Internal rotation C. Eversion D. Inversion Q16. What injury is supraspinatus most susceptible to? A. Overuse B. Shearing C. Tearing D. Impingement 4

5 Q17. Which joint is capable of pronation and supination? A. Ankle B. Sacroiliac C. Radio-ulna D. Atlanto-axial Q18. What is the name of the bony lump at the front end of the iliac crest called? A. Anterior superior iliac spine B. Anterior inferior iliac spine C. Posterior superior iliac spine D. Posterior inferior iliac spine Q19. Which muscle stabilises the pelvis in the frontal plane? A. Serratus anterior B. Multifidus C. Quadratus lumborum D. Longissimus Q20. What is the sheet of connective tissue in the low back that stabilises the lumbar spine? A. Abdominal aponeurosis B. Iliocostal fascia C. Anterior longitudinal ligament D. Thoracolumbar fascia Q21. Which of the following may contribute to posterior pelvic tilt? A. Sedentary lifestyle B. Pregnancy C. Osteoarthritis D. Osteoporosis Q22. What is the reason that abdominal obesity can lead to a change in posture? A. Backward migration of centre of gravity B. Forward migration of centre of gravity C. Tightness in upper trapezius D. Tightness in pectoralis major 5

6 Q23. What effect on movement potential is a typical outcome of thoracic hyperkyphosis? A. Increased thoracic rotation B. Decreased thoracic rotation C. Decreased lumbar rotation D. Increased cervical rotation Q24. When is proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF) stretching appropriate? A. Warm-up B. Cool-down C. Cardiovascular component D. Resistance component Q25. What type of stretching involves the relaxation of all muscles around a joint? A. Ballistic B. Dynamic C. Passive D. Active Q26. What is a function of the central nervous system? A. Sensation B. Muscle contraction C. Thermoregulation D. Analysis of information Q27. Which pair of minerals cross the axon membrane to create an electrical current? A. Sulphur and magnesium B. Potassium and magnesium C. Calcium and sodium D. Sodium and potassium Q28. What is the name of the chemical messengers in the nervous system? A. Neurotransmitters B. Vesicles C. Hormones D. Histamines 6

7 Q29. What does a motor unit consist of? A. Neuron and tendon B. Neuron and fascia C. Neuron and muscle fibres D. Neuron and collagen fibres Q30. What is required to generate a stronger contraction? A. Stronger action potentials B. More motor neurons stimulated C. Fewer motor neurons stimulated D. More action potentials Q31. What do large motor units contain? A. Type 1 muscle fibres B. Type 2 muscle fibres C. Red muscle fibres D. Brown muscle fibres Q32. What protects muscles and tendons when high levels of tension build up? A. Baroreceptors B. Muscle spindles C. Nociceptors D. Golgi tendon organs Q33. What describes reciprocal inhibition? A. Antagonist relaxes during agonist contraction B. Antagonist contracts during agonist contraction C. Agonist relaxes as antagonist relaxes D. Synergist contracts as agonist contracts Q34. What change occurs in the axon terminal of motor neurons as a result of regular exercise? A. Increased calcium stores B. Increased creatine stores C. Increased neurotransmitter stores D. Increased testosterone stores 7

8 Q35. Power is a product of strength combined with what other component of fitness? A. Balance B. Speed C. Agility D. Coordination Q36. Which of the following is an endocrine gland? A. Liver B. Gall bladder C. Adrenal D. Stomach Q37. Which hormone regulates metabolism? A. Insulin B. Noradrenaline C. Thyroxine D. Calcitonin Q38. Which hormone is released during times of stress? A. Cortisol B. Cortisone C. Relaxin D. Oestrogen Q39. Which of the following is a by-product of anaerobic work that may cause local muscle fatigue? A. Oxygen B. Lactic acid C. Creatine D. Carbon dioxide Q40. Which adaptation to endurance training enables more aerobic energy production in type 1 muscle fibres? A. Increased mitochondria B. Increased haemoglobin C. Increased lactic acid D. Increased creatine phosphate 8

9 Q41. The structures that prevent backflow of blood between the chambers of the heart are: A Atrioventricular valves B Ventricoatrial valves C Ventricoarterial valves D Atrioarterial valves Q42. The valsalva manoeuvre: A Has no effect on blood pressure B Decreases blood pressure C Increases blood pressure D Decreases diastolic pressure Q43. Which of the following is a cardiovascular benefit of aerobic training? A Reduced arterial elasticity B Improved myocardial contractility C Lower cardiac output D Higher lactic acid Q44. Optimal systolic blood pressure is considered to be: A 90 mmhg B 120 mmhg C 150 mmhg D 180 mmhg Q45. The myelin sheath is vital for: A Sensing heat and pain B Releasing acetylcholine C Generating an action potential D Fast transmission of impulses Q46. Calcium release in muscle tissue to stimulate actin and myosin interaction flows from the: A Cytoplasm B Sarcoplasmic reticulum C Muscle spindle D Golgi tendon organ 9

10 Q47. Where is the origin of rectus abdominis? A Pubis B Femur C Lower ribs D Sternum Q48. Which of the following muscles eccentrically controls adduction of the shoulder? A Latissimus dorsi B Pectoralis major C Deltoids D Biceps brachii Q49. Through which axis must the hips rotate, as the femur is moved into internal or external rotation? A Anterior-posterior axis B Transverse axis C Longitudinal axis D Medial axis Q50. Whilst the pectoralis major contracts concentrically, which action takes place at the shoulder? A Horizontal flexion B Lateral flexion C Retraction D Elevation Q51. When in a standing position which movement occurs at the shoulder joint whilst reaching toward the ceiling? A Plantar flexion B Flexion C Protraction D Retraction Q52. During the downward phase of a squat which movement occurs at the hip? A Lateral flexion B Horizontal flexion C Flexion D Plantar flexion 10

11 Q53. The lumbar spine: A Forms a joint with the ribs B Forms a joint with the pelvis C Has the largest vertebrae D Allows more rotation than flexion Q54. Which of the following muscles is NOT part of the inner unit? A Diaphragm B Iliopsoas C Pelvic floor D Transversus abdominis Q55. Insufficient core muscle function can lead to: A Increased inner unit recruitment B Increased intra-abdominal pressure C Reduced loading of spinal ligaments D Increased postural abnormalities Q56. An increased lumbar lordosis: A Decreases pressure on the intervertebral discs B Increases pressure on the intervertebral discs C Decreases pressure on the transverse processes D Increases pressure on the transverse processes Q57. A posterior disc bulge is more likely to be aggravated by: A Spinal extension B Shoulder extension C Plantar flexion D Spinal flexion Q58. The section of the nervous system solely responsible for conscious control is the: A Peripheral nervous system B Central nervous system C Somatic nervous system D Autonomic nervous system 11

12 Q59. Muscle fibres can only function as part of a: A Motor group B Motor neuron C Motor unit D Motor stimulus Q60. A single motor unit: A Can increase the force it generates B Can decrease the force it generates C Cannot vary the force it generates D Frequently varies the force it generates Q61. Rapidly lengthening a muscle will stimulate a neural response called: A The rapid reflex B The stretch reflex C The inverse stretch reflex D The converse stretch reflex Q62. Reciprocal inhibition occurs during muscular control to: A Prevent excessive force generation B Allow easier contraction of the agonist C Prevent contraction of the agonist D Allow greater joint stabilisation Q63. Which of the following lists only contains endocrine glands? A Pituitary, adrenals and liver B Thyroid, pancreas and heart C Pancreas, pituitary and thyroid D Spleen, testes and ovaries Q64. Which of the following hormones helps to maintain basal metabolic rate? A Growth hormone B Thyroid hormones C Oestrogen D Cortisol 12

13 Q65. Which of the following is NOT a by-product of the aerobic energy system? A Carbon dioxide B Heat C Water D Lactic acid Q66. What is the name of the valve that is located between the left ventricle and left atrium? A Tricuspid B Aortic C Pulmonary D Bicuspid Q67. Which sensory organs register the position of the body? A Proprioceptors B Thermoreceptors C Chemoreceptors D Baroreceptors Q68. Which statement describes the endocrine system? A It is made up of neurons that transmit information between different parts of the body B It is made up of glands which secrete hormones into the bloodstream to regulate the body C It is made up of bones which provide support and protection to major organs D It is made up of muscles which allow movement of different parts of the body Q69. In which anatomical plane does lordosis occur? A Frontal B Transverse C Sagittal D Coronal Q70. If a client with moderate hypertension began regular cardiovascular training, resting and exercising blood pressures can be reduced by: A 1-10 mmhg B mmhg C mmhg D mmhg 13

14 Q71. Which one of the following valves prevents backflow of blood into the left ventricle? Q72. The ovaries release hormones which: A Activate milk production in women who are breast feeding B Promote bone growth and development C Stimulate the breakdown of Glycogen to Glucose D Decrease hair growth on the body 14

15 Q73. How can the vascular system increase blood flow to a specific area of the body? A By vasoconstriction of arterioles leading to that area of the body B By vasodilation of venules leading to that area of the body C By vasoconstriction of venules leading to that area of the body D By vasodilation of arterioles leading to that area of the body Q74. What is pyruvic acid converted to when there is inadequate oxygen? A Lactic acid B Creatine C Carbon dioxide D ADP Q75. What statement describes a short term effect of exercise? A A decrease in systolic blood pressure B A decrease in stroke volume C An increase in systolic blood pressure unrelated to exercise intensity D An increase in systolic blood pressure related to exercise intensity Q76. Which term is used to describe the outer layer of a muscle? A Endomysium B Epimysium C Periosteum D Perimysium Q77. Which activity will predominantly recruit slow oxidative motor units? A Sprinting B Throwing C Walking D Jumping Q78. Which statement describes the systolic blood pressure response during exercise? A It decreases under the influence of the autonomic nervous system B It increases under the influence of the autonomic nervous system C It decreases under the influence of the somatic nervous system D It increases under the influence of the somatic nervous system 15

16 Q79. Which of the following muscles does NOT attach to the ribs and the iliac crest? A External obliques B Transverse abdominis C Internal obliques D Rectus abdominis Q80. A benefit of core stability training is: A Increased risk of joint laxity B Reduced bone density C Increased cardiac output D Improved balance Q81. Which quadricep muscle crosses two joints? A Vastus intermedius B Vastus medialis C Vastus lateralis D Rectus femoris Q82. Which structure is the arrow pointing to? A Circumflex artery B Right coronary artery C Left aortic valve D Pulmonary artery 16

17 Q83. Complete the sentence: The anaerobic threshold is described as the point at which than it can be cleared. A Heat build-up occurs slower B Lactate build-up occurs slower C Heat build-up occurs faster D Lactate build-up occurs faster Q84. Which statement describes the action of supraspinatus? A Abduction of the shoulder in the frontal plane B Abduction of the shoulder in the transverse plane C External rotation of the humerus in the frontal plane D External rotation of the humerus in the transverse plane Q85. Plaque deposits on the walls of blood vessels may be decreased by: A Regular consumption of red meat B Genetic factors C Smoking D An active lifestyle Q86. The structure of collagen fibres in a synovial joint capsule can be described as: A Dense, elastic, regular B Dense, inelastic, irregular C Dense, elastic, irregular D Dense, inelastic, regular Q87. Where is the transverse abdominis located? A Deep to the internal obliques and external obliques B Superficial to the external obliques and internal obliques C Deep to the external obliques and superficial to the internal obliques D Superficial to the external obliques and deep to the internal obliques Q88. What muscle contributes to extension of the vertebral column? A Pectineus B Multifidus C Levator scapulae D Rectus abdominis 17

18 Q89. Complete the sentence: The stimulates the relaxation of muscle during PNF stretching. A Afferent nerve B Golgi tendon organ C Myosin filaments D Muscle spindles Q90. Which muscle is involved in hip abduction? A Gracilis B Piriformis C Gastrocnemius D Pectineus Q91. What is the function of the spinal cord? A To transmit information B To supply blood and nutrients C To supply hormones D To help support the vertebral column Q92. Which muscle helps to maintain a neutral spine position? A Vastus medialis B Tibialis anterior C Quadratus lumborum D Brachialis Q93. Which action is performed by the muscle pictured below? A Extension of the knee B Flexion of the knee C Abduction of the hip D Adduction of the hip Q94. Which of the following would slow down breathing rate? A Parasympathetic action of the somatic nervous system B Sympathetic action of the somatic nervous system C Parasympathetic action of the autonomic nervous system D Sympathetic action of the autonomic nervous system - 18

19 Q95. Why is it important to maintain spine alignment when lifting equipment from the floor? A Reduced stress on ligaments B Increased stress on ligaments C Reduced sacral curvature D Increased sacral curvature Q96. What is an alternative term for the semi-lunar valve? A Tricuspid valve B Bicuspid valve C Aortic valve D Mitral valve Q97. Which exercise can help to correct a kyphotic posture? A Stretching the lower portion of the trapezius B Strengthening the thoracic erector spinae C Strengthening rectus abdominis D Stretching the lumbar multifidus Q98. Which statement describes dendrites? A Tree like extensions that receive information B The gap between two nerve cells C The fatty sheath which surrounds the axon D An elongated fibre that transmits information Q99. Arteriosclerosis can be defined as: A Increased high density lipoprotein levels within the blood B Dilation of the arterial walls during aerobic activity C Diseases that cause hardening and loss of elasticity in arteries D Depositing of lipids in the arterial walls Q100. What is the contractile unit of a muscle fibre? A Tendon B Fascicle C Sarcomere D Endomysium 19

20 Q101. What are the characteristics of Type 1 muscle fibres? A High force capacity, low mitochondria and low capillary density B Low force capacity, high mitochondria and high capillary density C Intermediate force capacity, high mitochondria and low capillary density D Low force capacity, low mitochondria and high capillary density Question number Answer Question number Answer 1 A 26 D 2 C 27 D 3 D 28 A 4 C 29 C 5 A 30 B 6 D 31 B 7 B 32 D 8 C 33 A 9 A 34 C 10 D 35 B 11 A 36 C 12 C 37 C 13 B 38 A 14 D 39 B 15 C 40 A 16 D 41 A 17 C 42 C 18 A 43 B 19 C 44 B 20 D 45 D 21 A 46 B 22 B 47 A 23 B 48 C 24 B 49 C 25 C 50 A 20

21 Question number Answer Question number Answer 51 B 76 B 52 C 77 C 53 C 78 B 54 B 79 D 55 D 80 D 56 B 81 D 57 D 82 A 58 C 83 D 59 C 84 A 60 C 85 D 61 B 86 C 62 B 87 A 63 C 88 B 64 B 89 B 65 D 90 B 66 D 91 A 67 A 92 C 68 B 93 B 69 C 94 C 70 A 95 A 71 A 96 C 72 D 97 B 73 D 98 A 74 A 99 C 75 D 100 C 101 B Make sure you check out the below two videos to supercharge your exam success: How to make learning easy <<<< click here How to pass first time [REBUGG] <<<< click here 21