AP Immune Int. Reg. Practice Test

Transcription

1 AP Immune Int. Reg. Practice Test Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. The innate immunity that protects a person digging in the garden from developing a microbial infection includes all of the following except a. lymphocytes. b. the skin. c. mucous membranes. d. acidic secretions. e. antimicrobial proteins. 2. Physical barriers to invasion by other organisms a. include the skin and the mucous membranes. b. are difficult for bacteria and viruses to penetrate. c. may work in conjunction with secretions like tears, perspiration, and mucus. d. Only A and C are correct. e. A, B, and C are correct. 3. Both the eye and the respiratory tract are protected against infections by which of the following? a. the mucous membranes that cover their surface b. the secretion of complement proteins c. the release of slightly acidic secretions d. the secretion of lysozyme onto their surface e. interferons produced by immune cells 4. How do people contract salmonella poisoning? a. The microbe can survive the acidic environment of the stomach and resist lysosomal degradation in macrophages. b. The chemotactic messengers released by the salmonella bacterium did not attract sufficient neutrophils to entirely destroy the infection. c. There was a delay in selection of the population of eosinophils that recognize and are responsible for fighting these bacterial infections. d. The bacterium released chemical messengers that make it resistant to phagocytosis. e. The combination of foods eaten at the meal reduced the ph of the stomach sufficiently so that the bacterium was not destroyed. 5. The lymphatic system involves which of the following organs? a. spleen and lymph nodes b. adenoids and tonsils c. appendix and special portions of the small intestine d. A and B only e. A, B, and C 6. Which statement about the complement system is true? a. These proteins are involved in innate immunity and not acquired immunity. b. These proteins are secreted by cytotoxic T cells. c. This group of proteins includes interferons. d. These proteins are one group of antimicrobial proteins. e. none of the above

2 7. Which action below is affected by an antihistamine? a. blood vessel dilation b. phatocytosis of antigens c. MHC presentation by macrophages d. the secondary immune response e. clonal selection by antigens 8. Which cell and signaling molecule are responsible for initiating an immune response? a. phagocytes: lysozyme b. phagocytes: chemokines c. dendritic cells: interferon d. mast cells: histamine e. lymphocytes: interferon 9. Inflammatory responses may include all of the following except a. clotting proteins sealing off a localized area. b. increased activity of phagocytes in an inflamed area. c. reduced permeability of blood vessels to conserve plasma. d. release of substances to increase the blood supply to an inflamed area. e. increased release of white blood cells from bone marrow. 10. Each indication below is a clinical characteristic of inflammation except a. decreased temperature. b. edema. c. redness. d. pain. e. increased blood flow. 11. A bacterium entering the body through a small cut in the skin will do which of the following? a. inactivate the hemocytes b. stimulate apoptosis of body cells c. stimulate release of interferons d. stimulate natural killer cell activity e. activate a group of proteins called complement 12. Which of the following is a false statement about innate immunity? a. They include inflammatory responses. b. They include physical and chemical barriers. c. They must be primed by the presence of antigen. d. They may involve the formation of membrane attack complexes. e. Macrophages and natural killer cells are participants in the process. 13. What is the single most important event establishing a primary immune response? a. the presentation of viral protein complexed to class I MHC b. the lyses of virally infected cells by cytotoxic T cells c. the phagocytosis of microbes by antigen-presenting cells d. the recognition of self versus foreign e. apoptosis of virally infected cells 14. What are antigens? a. proteins found in the blood that cause foreign blood cells to clump b. proteins embedded in B cell membranes c. proteins that consist of two light and two heavy polypeptide chains

3 d. foreign molecules that trigger the generation of antibodies e. proteins released during an inflammatory response 15. Which of the following is not a part of an antibody molecule? a. the epitope b. the constant or C regions c. the variable or V regions d. the light chains e. the heavy chains 16. If a newborn were accidentally given a drug that destroyed the thymus, what would most likely happen? a. His cells would lack class I MHC molecules on their surface. b. His immune system would not function. c. Genetic rearrangement of antigen receptors would not occur. d. His T cells would not undergo the test of self-tolerance. e. His B cells would be reduced in number. 17. The clonal selection theory implies that a. brothers and sisters have similar immune responses. b. antigens activate specific lymphocytes. c. only certain cells can produce interferon. d. a B cell has multiple types of antigen receptors. e. the body selects which antigens it will respond to. 18. The clonal selection theory is an explanation for how a. a single type of stem cell can produce both red blood cells and white blood cells. b. V gene and J gene segments are rearranged. c. an antigen can provoke development of very few cells to result in production of high levels of specific antibodies. d. HIV can disrupt the immune system. e. macrophages can recognize specific T cells and B cells. 19. A person exposed to a new cold virus would not feel better for one to two weeks because a. specific B cells and T cells must be selected prior to a protective response. b. it takes up to two weeks to stimulate immunologic memory cells. c. phagocytic cells must first be activated by the complement system. d. antigen receptors are not the same. e. V-J gene rearrangement must occur prior to a response. Use the graph in the figure below to answer the following questions.

4 20. When would B cells produce effector cells? a. between 0 and 7 days b. between 7 and 14 days c. between 28 and 35 days d. both A and B e. both A and C 21. When would you find antibodies being produced? a. between 3 and 7 days b. between 14 and 21 days c. between 28 and 35 days d. both B and C e. both A and C 22. Which of the following cell types are responsible for initiating a secondary immune response? a. memory cells b. macrophages c. stem cells d. B cells e. T cells 23. If a person's bone marrow were destroyed by radiation, which of the following cells could not be produced? a. B cells b. T cells c. erythrocytes d. neutrophils e. all of the above 24. The MHC is important in a. distinguishing self from nonself. b. recognizing parasitic pathogens. c. identifying bacterial pathogens. d. identifying cancer cells. e. both A and D 25. A patient can produce antibodies against some bacterial pathogens, but he does not produce antibodies against viral infections. This is probably due to a disorder in which cells of the immune system? a. B cells b. plasma cells

5 c. natural killer cells d. T cells e. macrophages 26. In which of the following situations will helper T cells be activated? a. when an antigen is displayed by a dendritic cell b. when a cytotoxic T cell releases cytokines c. when natural killer (NK) cells come in contact with a tumor cell d. in the bone marrow during the self tolerance test e. when B cells respond to T-independent antigens For the questions below, match the following answers with the phrase that best describes them. A. cytotoxic T cells B. natural killer cells C. helper T cells D. macrophages E. B cells 27. These cells are involved in cell-mediated immunity and destroy virally infected cells. a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E 28. These cells have a function that is similar to the function of dendritic cells. a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E 29. These cells are involved in cell-mediated immunity, and they respond to class I MHC molecule-antigen complexes. a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E 30. These cells are involved in innate immunity, and a person lacking these cells may have a higher than normal chance of developing malignant tumors. a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E 31. Which of the following is (are) not involved in the activation and functioning of cytotoxic T cells? a. interleukins b. antigen-presenting cells c. class I MHC molecules

6 d. T cell surface protein CD8 e. perforin 32. Which of the following is a pathway that would lead to the activation of cytotoxic T cells? a. B cell contact antigen helper T cell is activated clonal selection occurs b. body cell becomes infected with a virus synthesis of new viral proteins class I MHC molecule-antigen complex displayed on cell surface c. self-tolerance of immune cells B cells contact antigen cytokines released d. complement cells B cell contacts antigen helper T cell activated cytokines released e. cytotoxic T cells class II MHC molecule-antigen complex displayed cytokines released cell lysis 33. Which of the following is the last line of defense against an extracellular pathogen? a. lysozyme production b. phagocytosis by neutrophils c. antibody production by plasma cells d. histamine release by basophils e. lysis by natural killer cells 34. Which cell type interacts with both the humoral and cell-mediated immune pathways? a. plasma cells b. cytotoxic T cells c. natural killer cells d. CD8 cells e. helper T cells 35. Both lysozyme and cytotoxic T cells a. kill cells through chemical interactions. b. kill cells by inducing apoptosis. c. kill cells by generating a membrane attack complex. d. are part of innate immunity. e. are involved in cell-mediated immune responses. 36. A nonfunctional CD4 protein on a helper T cell would result in the helper T cell being unable to a. respond to T-independent antigens. b. lyse tumor cells. c. stimulate a cytotoxic T cell. d. interact with a class I MHC-antigen complex. e. interact with a class II MHC-antigen complex. 37. CD4 and CD8 are proteins a. secreted by antigen-presenting cells. b. present on the surface of natural killer (NK) cells. c. that are T-independent antigens. d. that are present on the surface of T cells where they enhance cellular interaction. e. that are on the surface of antigen-presenting cells where they enhance B cell activity. 38. Which cells will respond whether you have a viral infection or a bacterial infection? a. plasma cells b. helper T cells c. cytotoxic T cells d. only A and B

7 e. A, B, and C 39. Which of the following are all types of T cells that participate in the immune response system? a. CD4, CD8, and helper cells b. cytotoxic and helper cells c. plasma, antigen-presenting, and memory cells d. lymphocytes, macrophages, and dendritic cells e. class I MHC, class II MHC, and memory cells 40. B cells interacting with helper T cells are stimulated to differentiate when a. B cells produce IgE antibodies. b. B cells release cytokines. c. helper T cells present the class II MHC molecule-antigen complex on their surface. d. helper T cells differentiate into cytotoxic T cells. e. helper T cells release cytokines. 41. Why can normal immune responses be described as polyclonal? a. Blood contains many different antibodies to many different antigens. b. Construction of a hybridoma requires multiple types of cells. c. Multiple immunoglobulins are produced from descendants of a single B cell. d. Diverse antibodies are produced for different epitopes of a specific antigen. e. Macrophages, T cells, and B cells all are involved in normal immune response. 42. Antibodies of the different classes IgM, IgG, IgA, IgD, and IgE differ from each other in the a. way they are produced. b. way they interact with the antigen. c. type of cell that produces them. d. antigenic determinants that they recognize. e. number of carbohydrate subunits they have. 43. Which of the following types of cells is not involved in both antibody-mediated immunity and cell-mediated immunity? a. pathogenic cells b. plasma cells c. helper T cells d. macrophages e. memory cells 44. When antibodies attack antigens, clumping of the affected cells generally occurs. This is best explained by a. the shape of the antibody with at least two binding regions. b. disulfide bridges between the antigens. c. complement that makes the affected cells sticky. d. bonds between class I and class II MHC molecules. e. denaturation of the antibodies. 45. Phagocytosis of microbes by macrophages is enhanced by a. the binding of antibodies to the surface of microbes. b. antibody-mediated agglutination of microbes. c. the release of cytokines by activated B cells. d. A and B only e. A, B, and C 46. Which of the following statements about humoral immunity is correct?

8 a. It primarily defends against fungi and protozoa. b. It is responsible for transplant tissue rejection. c. It protects the body against cells that become cancerous. d. It is mounted by lymphocytes that have matured in the bone marrow. e. It primarily defends against bacteria and viruses that have already infected cells. 47. What happens to people who receive flu vaccinations? a. They develop active immunity to the flu. b. They develop passive immunity to the flu. c. They have immunity to smallpox infection. d. They have an increased number of natural killer (NK) cells. e. They develop a hypersensitive humoral immune response. 48. Naturally acquired passive immunity would involve the a. injection of vaccine. b. ingestion of interferon. c. placental transfer of antibodies. d. absorption of pathogens through mucous membranes. e. injection of antibodies. 49. Jenner successfully used cowpox virus as a vaccine against the virus that causes smallpox. Why was he successful even though he used viruses of different kinds? a. The immune system responds nonspecifically to antigens. b. The cowpox virus made antibodies in response to the presence of smallpox. c. Cowpox and smallpox are antibodies with similar immunizing properties. d. There are some antigenic determinants common to both pox viruses. e. All of the above are true. 50. Which of the following would be most beneficial in treating an individual who has been bitten by a poisonous snake that has a fast-acting toxin? a. vaccination with a weakened form of the toxin b. injection of antibodies to the toxin c. injection of interleukin-1 d. injection of interleukin-2 e. injection of interferon 51. The successful development of a vaccine to be used against a pathogen a. is dependent on the surface antigens of the pathogen not changing. b. requires a rearrangement of the B cell receptor antibodies. c. is not possible without knowing the structure of the surface antigens on the pathogen. d. is dependent on the pathogen having only one epitope. e. is dependent on MHC molecules being heterozygous. 52. What would be the major concern for an individual with type A blood who receives a transfusion of type B blood? a. the antibodies in the serum of the donor b. the antibodies in the serum of the recipient c. the anti-a antibodies produced by the donor d. the production of memory cells that will occur in the recipient e. antibodies in both the donor's and recipient's serum 53. A transfusion of type A blood given to a person who has type O blood would result in which of the following?

9 a. the recipient's B antigens reacting with the donated anti-b antibodies b. the recipient's anti-a antibodies clumping the donated red blood cells c. the recipient's anti-a and anti-o antibodies reacting with the donated red blood cells if the donor was a heterozygote (Ai) for blood type d. no reaction because type O is a universal donor e. no reaction because the O-type individual does not have antibodies Use the data below to answer the following questions.. Case 1 Case 2 Case 3 Mother Fetus 54. In which of the cases could the mother exhibit an anti-rh-factor reaction to the developing fetus? a. case 1 only b. case 3 only c. cases 1 and 2 only d. cases 1, 2, and 3 e. It cannot be determined from the data given. 55. In which of the cases would the mother not exhibit an anti-rh-factor reaction to the developing fetus? a. case 1 only b. case 3 only c. cases 2 and 3 only d. cases 1, 2, and 3 e. It cannot be determined from the data given. 56. In which of the cases would the precaution likely be taken to give the mother anti-rh antibodies before delivering her baby? a. case 1 only b. case 3 only c. cases 1 and 2 only d. cases 1, 2, and 3 e. It cannot be determined from the data given. 57. There is usually no concern if the mother's blood type is different from that of the developing fetus unless the Rh factor is involved. This is because a. the mother naturally develops a passive immunity to Rh unless she has had an Rh-positive child. b. fetal blood cells can cross the placenta. c. maternal blood cells can cross the placenta. d. maternal Rh antibodies can cross the placenta, whereas those against the ABO blood groups cannot. e. maternal Rh antibodies cannot cross the placenta, whereas those against the ABO blood groups can. 58. In order to investigate the immune system of an invertebrate animal, a scientist grafts a section of epidermis from one earthworm to another. What might be the result of such an experiment? a. Invertebrates do not have immune responses, so the graft will be accepted. b. The graft will be recognized as nonself and rejected. c. This graft will be accepted, but a second graft would be rejected. d. The graft may recognize the host as foreign and react to it.

10 e. Both B and D would happen. 59. An immune response to a tissue graft will differ from an immune response to a bacterium because a. MHC molecules of the host may stimulate rejection of the graft tissue. b. the tissue graft, unlike the bacterium, is isolated from the circulation and will not enter into an immune response. c. a response to the graft will involve T cells and a response to the bacterium will not. d. a bacterium cannot escape the immune system by replicating inside normal body cells. e. the graft will stimulate an autoimmune response in the recipient. 60. Which of the following could prevent the appearance of the symptoms of an allergy attack? a. blocking the attachment of the IgE antibodies to the mast cells b. blocking the antigenic determinants of the IgM antibodies c. reducing the number of helper T cells in the body d. A and B only e. B and C only 61. A patient reports severe symptoms of watery, itchy eyes and sneezing after being given a flower bouquet as a birthday gift. A reasonable initial treatment would involve the use of a. a vaccine. b. complement. c. sterile pollen. d. antihistamines. e. monoclonal antibodies. 62. What aspect of the immune response would a patient who has a parasitic worm infection and another patient responding to an allergen such as ragweed pollen have in common? a. Both patients would have an increase in cytotoxic T cell number. b. Both patients would suffer from anaphylactic shock. c. Both patients would risk development of an autoimmune disease. d. Both patients would be suffering from a decreased level of innate immunity. e. Both patients would have increased levels of IgE. 63. All of the following are usually considered disorders of the immune system except a. AIDS. b. SCID. c. lupus erythematosus. d. multiple sclerosis. e. MHC-induced transplant rejection. 64. A person with AIDS would be unlikely to suffer from which of the following diseases? a. cancer b. rheumatoid arthritis c. hepatitis d. tuberculosis e. influenza 65. Which choice could be used as an analogy to describe how HIV affects the body? a. bypassing a light switch so that electricity is constantly flowing to a light b. rebooting a computer after getting a program error message c. snipping the wires coming from a car battery so that no electricity flows to the car components d. an elevator stopping at the floor for which the button has been pushed

11 e. changing the color of your house to match the color of your car 66. A marine sea star was mistakenly placed in freshwater and it died. What is the most likely explanation for its death? a. The sea star was stressed and needed more time to adapt to new conditions. b. The sea star is hypertonic to the freshwater, and it could not osmoregulate. c. The osmoregulatory system of the sea star could not handle the change in ionic content presented by the freshwater. d. The contractile vacuoles used to regulate water content ruptured in the freshwater. e. The cells of the sea star dehydrated and lost the ability to metabolize. 67. Organisms categorized as osmoconformers are most likely a. terrestrial. b. marine. c. amphibious. d. found in freshwater streams. e. found in freshwater lakes. 68. The body fluids of an osmoconformer would be with its environment. a. hypertonic; freshwater b. isotonic; freshwater c. hyperosmotic; saltwater d. isoosmotic; saltwater e. hypoosmotic; saltwater 69. Compared to the seawater around them, most marine invertebrates are a. hyperosmotic. b. hypoosmotic. c. isoosmotic. d. hyperosmotic and isoosmotic. e. hypoosmotic and isoosmotic. 70. Which feature of osmoregulation is found in both marine and freshwater bony fish? a. loss of water through the gills b. gain of salt through the gills c. loss of water in the urine d. no drinking of water e. gain of water through food 71. In addition to their role in gas exchange, fish gills are also directly involved in a. digestion. b. osmoregulation. c. thermoregulation. d. the excretion of uric acid. e. the release of atrial natriuretic proteins. 72. All of the following represent adaptations by terrestrial animals to drying conditions except a. anhydrobiosis. b. salt glands. c. efficient kidneys. d. impervious surfaces. e. increased thirst.

12 73. The digestion and utilization of which nutrient creates the greatest need for osmoregulation by the kidneys? a. protein b. starch c. fat d. oil e. cellulose 74. Where and from what compound(s) is urea produced? a. liver from NH 3 and CO 2 b. liver from glycogen c. kidneys from glucose d. kidneys from glycerol and fatty acids e. bladder from uric acid and H 2O 75. Which of the following is true of urea? It is a. insoluble in water. b. more toxic to human cells than ammonia. c. the primary nitrogenous waste product of humans. d. the primary nitrogenous waste product of most birds. e. the primary nitrogenous waste product of most aquatic invertebrates. 76. Which of the following is true of ammonia? a. It is soluble in water. b. It can be stored as a precipitate. c. It has low toxicity relative to urea. d. Only A and C are true. e. A, B, and C are true. 77. Which of the following is not a function of the liver? a. storage of glycogen b. secretion of urea c. production of plasma proteins d. removal of glucose from the blood e. detoxification of chemical poisons in the blood 78. The advantage of excreting wastes as urea rather than as ammonia is that a. urea can be exchanged for Na +. b. urea is less toxic than ammonia. c. urea requires more water for excretion than ammonia. d. urea does not affect the osmolar gradient. e. less nitrogen is removed from the body. 79. What is the main nitrogenous waste excreted by birds? a. ammonia b. nitrate c. nitrite d. urea e. uric acid 80. Which of the following is a nitrogenous waste that requires hardly any water for its excretion? a. amino acid b. urea c. uric acid

13 d. ammonia e. nitrogen gas 81. What is the process called by which materials are returned to the blood from the nephron fluid? a. filtration b. ultrafiltration c. selective reabsorption d. secretion e. active transport 82. Which organism(s) has excretory structures known as protonephridia? a. flatworms b. earthworms c. insects d. vertebrates e. both C and D 83. Which organism(s) has excretory organs known as Malpighian tubules? a. earthworms b. flatworms c. insects d. jellyfish e. both A and B 84. Which of the following mechanisms for osmoregulation or nitrogen removal is incorrectly paired with its corresponding animal? a. metanephridium-earthworm b. Malpighian tubule-insect c. kidney-frog d. flame bulb-snake e. direct cellular exchange-marine invertebrate 85. Which of the following excretory systems is partly based on the filtration of fluid under high hydrostatic pressure? a. flame-bulb system of flatworms b. protonephridia of rotifers c. metanephridia of earthworms d. Malpighian tubules of insects e. kidneys of vertebrates 86. What is the functional unit of the kidney? a. cortex b. vasa recta c. nephron d. bladder e. glomerulus 87. The transfer of fluid from the glomerulus to Bowman's capsule a. results from active transport. b. transfers large molecules as easily as small ones. c. is very selective as to which small molecules are transferred. d. is mainly a consequence of blood pressure force-filtering the fluid. e. usually includes the transfer of red blood cells to the nephron tubule.

14 88. Which part of the vertebrate nephron consists of capillaries? a. glomerulus b. loop of Henle c. distal tubule d. Bowman's capsule e. collecting duct 89. Which of the following normally contains blood? a. vasa recta b. Bowman's capsule c. loop of Henle d. proximal tubule e. collecting duct Refer to the figure below, a diagram of a renal tubule, to answer the following questions. 90. In which region would filtration occur? a. I b. III c. IV d. V e. VII 91. In which region would urine become more concentrated? a. I b. III c. IV d. V e. VII 92. In which region would nutrients be actively transported to the blood? a. I b. II c. IV d. V e. VI

15 93. Which structure passes urine to the renal pelvis? a. loop of Henle b. collecting duct c. Bowman's capsule d. proximal tubule e. glomerulus 94. Which structure possesses specialized cells called podocytes? a. loop of Henle b. collecting duct c. Bowman's capsule d. proximal tubule e. glomerulus 95. All of the following are functions of the mammalian kidney except a. water reabsorption. b. filtration of blood. c. excretion of nitrogenous waste. d. regulation of salt balance in the blood. e. production of urea as a waste product of protein catabolism. 96. Which of the following is not true concerning transport epithelia involved in water balance? a. One surface of the epithelium faces the outside environment directly or indirectly. b. The epithelium is a semipermeable barrier. c. The surface area is small, which prevents excessive water loss. d. The epithelium regulates the movement of solutes. e. Cells are joined by tight junctions. 97. Which of the following processes of osmoregulation by the kidney is the least selective? a. salt pumping to control osmolarity b. H + pumping to control ph c. reabsorption d. filtration e. secretion 98. Proper functioning of the human kidney requires considerable active transport of sodium in the kidney tubules. If these active transport mechanisms were to stop completely, how would urine production be affected? a. No urine would be produced. b. A less-than-normal volume of hypoosmotic urine would be produced. c. A greater-than-normal volume of isoosmotic urine would be produced. d. A greater-than-normal volume of hyperosmotic urine would be produced. e. A less-than-normal volume of isoosmotic urine would be produced. 99. Which one of the following is extremely important for water conservation in mammals? a. juxtamedullary nephrons b. Bowman's capsule c. urethra d. podocytes e. ureter 100. Which one of the following, if present in a urine sample, would likely be caused by trauma?

16 a. amino acids b. glucose c. salts d. erythrocytes e. vitamins 101. Depending on salt intake and water availability, humans can produce urine that is a. hyperosmotic to body fluids. b. hypoosmotic to body fluids. c. isoosmotic to body fluids. d. A and B are true. e. A, B, and C are true What would account for increased urine production as a result of drinking alcoholic beverages? a. increased aldosterone production b. increased blood pressure c. decreased amount of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) d. increased reabsorption of water in the proximal tubule e. the osmoregulator cells of the brain increasing their activity 103. In a laboratory experiment with three groups, one group of people drinks pure water, a second group drinks an equal amount of beer, and a third group drinks an equal amount of concentrated salt solution all during the same time period. Their urine production is monitored for several hours. At the end of the measurement period, which group will have produced the greatest volume of urine and which group the least? a. beer the most, salt solution the least b. salt solution the most, water the least c. water the most, beer the least d. beer the most, water the least e. There will be no significant difference between these groups.

17 AP Immune Int. Reg. Practice Test Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 43.1 Concept ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 43.3

18 42. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 43.4 Concept ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 44.4

19 89. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 44.5