Mock Exam #3 (Chapters 41, 42, 43, 11, 45)

Transcription

1 Mock Exam #3 (Chapters 41, 42, 43, 11, 45) 1) Animals that move across great distances would obtain the greatest energetic benefit by storing chemical energy as a. proteins. b. minerals. c. carbohydrates. d. amino acids. e. fats 2) Which pair correctly associates a physiological process with the appropriate vitamin? a. blood clotting and vitamin C b. normal vision and vitamin A c. synthesis of cell membranes and vitamin D d. protection of skin from cancer and vitamin E e. production of white blood cells and vitamin K 3) Which pair correctly associates a biochemical process with the appropriate mineral associated with its use in animals? a. maintenance of bone and calcium b. cofactor in enzymes that make ATP and magnesium c. thyroid hormone synthesis and iron d. nucleic acid synthesis and sulfur e. glucose homeostasis and iodine 4) Which of the following statements regarding protein digestion is true? a. Protein digestion begins in the small intestine. b. Active pepsin is formed in the lumen of the stomach, where it helps to break down proteins. c. Protein digestion is dependent on amylase from parietal cells of the stomach. d. Protein digestion occurs at a ph of about 7.0. e. Protein digestion begins in the mouth through the action of salivary amylase. 5) Acid chyme. a. contains digested fat b. is a mush made from boluses and hydrolytic enzymes secreted by the pancreas and duodenum c. contains food and gastric juice and moves through the pyloric sphincter d. causes gastric ulcers e. passes into the large intestine, where water is removed 6) Earthworms, grasshoppers, and birds all have a a. gastric cecae. b. larynx. c. crop. d. diaphragm e. epiglottis.

2 7) In humans, most nutrient molecules are absorbed by the. a. stomach b. liver c. small intestine d. large intestine e. pancreas 8) The lungs consist of many small air sacs and blood vessels, which greatly increase surface area and improve the transfer of substances through their walls. The structures in the digestive system most similar in function to these air sacs and capillaries are the. a. villi and microvilli b. esophagus c. gastric glands d. gastric pits e. sphincters 9) The bile salts a. are enzymes. b. are manufactured by the kidneys. c. emulsify fats in the duodenum. d. increase the efficiency of HCl. e. are an ingredient of gastric juice. 10) An enlarged cecum is typical of a. rabbits, horses, and herbivorous bears. b. Wolves, foxes, and hyenas. c. tubeworms that digest via symbionts. d. humans and other primates. e. tapeworms and other intestinal parasites. 11) In a fish, blood circulates through, whereas in a mammal, it circulates through. a. two circuits... four circuits b. one circuit... two circuits c. four circuits... two circuits d. one circuit... four circuits e. two circuits... one circuit 12) The fluid that moves around in the circulatory system of a typical arthropod is a. the digestive juices. b. the intracellular fluid. c. the blood plasma. d. the cytosol. e. the interstitial fluid.

3 13) A condition affecting the sinoatrial node in humans a. would be most likely be a major contributor to high blood pressure. b. would block the signal between the bundle branches and the Purkinje fibers. c. would increase the tidal volume of the heart. d. would disrupt the rate and timing of cardiac muscle contractions. e. would have a direct effect on output volume through the aorta. 14) Which chambers of a human heart receive and pump oxygenated blood? a. left ventricle and left atrium b. left atrium and right atrium c. left atrium only d. right atrium and right ventricle e. left ventricle only 15) The set of blood vessels with the slowest velocity of blood flow is a. the veins. b. the arterioles. c. the aorta d. the capillaries. e. the arteries 16) The production of red blood cells is stimulated by a. insulin b. immunoglobulins. c. erythropoietin. d. epinephrine. e. platelets. 17) The process of blood clotting includes a. production of ATP. b. conversion of fibrin to fibrinogen. c. activation of prothrombin to thrombin. d. increase in platelets. e. synthesis of hemoglobin. 18) Which of the following is the correct sequence of blood flow in reptiles and mammals? a. left ventricle aorta lungs systemic circulation b. right ventricle pulmonary vein pulmocutaneous circulation c. pulmonary vein left atrium left ventricle pulmonary circuit d. vena cava right atrium right ventricle pulmonary circuit e. right atrium pulmonary artery left atrium ventricle 19) Air rushes into the lungs of humans during inhalation because a. the rib muscles and diaphragm contract, increasing the lung volume. b. the volume of the alveoli increases as smooth muscles contract. c. gas flows from a region of lower pressure to a region of higher pressure. d. pulmonary muscles contract and pull on the outer surface of the lungs. e. a positive respiratory pressure is created when the diaphragm relaxes.

4 20) What is the order of passage as air is inhaled during ventilation of the lungs in a typical mammal? a. nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, bronchiole, bronchus, trachea, alveolus b. nasal cavity, larynx, pharynx, trachea, bronchus, bronchiole, alveolus c. nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchus, bronchiole, alveolus d. nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchiole, bronchus, alveolus e. nasal cavity, pharynx, trachea, larynx, bronchus, bronchiole, alveolus 21) What happens when the CO2 level from cellular respiration increases in the blood? a. Cellular respiration decreases. b. A decrease in the ph of the cerebrospinal fluid triggers the brain'ʹs breathing control centers, which stimulate diaphragm and rib muscle contractions. c. The ph of the cerebrospinal fluid also increases and is detected by O2 sensors in arteries near the heart. d. The O2 level automatically increases. e. The medulla, moderated by the pons, signals the heart muscle to beat harder, bringing in more O2 22) The epiglottis of a human covers the glottis when he or she is a. coughing. b. breathing. c. swallowing. d. yawning. e. sleeping. 23) Gas exchange in the gills of a bony fish is maximized by which of the following? a. a tracheal system b. negative pressure breathing c. alveoli d. countercurrent exchange e. positive pressure breathing 24) Phagocytosis is best defined as. a. the cellular ingestion and digestion of foreign substances b. the process by which a cell engulfs and takes up a liquid c. the secretion of antimicrobial peptides d. the fusion of an intracellular vesicle with the plasma membrane of a cell e. the process of activating memory T cells 25) Which cell and signaling molecule are responsible for initiating an immune response? a. phagocytes: lysozyme b. phagocytes: antibodies c. B cells: interferon d. mast cells: histamine e. lymphocytes: insulin 26) Which of the following is not true about innate immunity? a. They include inflammatory responses. b. They include physical and chemical barriers. c. They must be primed by the presence of antigen. d. They may involve the formation of membrane attack complexes. e. Macrophages and natural killer cells are participants in the process.

5 27) Which of the following cells are part of the innate, second line of defense? a. cytotoxic T cells b. B cells c. prostaglandins d. macrophages e. platelets 28) If someone's bone marrow were destroyed, which of the following cells could not be produced? a. B cells b. T cells c. erythrocytes d. neutrophils e. all of the above 29) In which of the following situations will helper T cells be activated? a. when an antigen is displayed by a dendritic cell b. when a cytotoxic T cell releases T cytokines c. when natural killer cells come in contact with a tumor cell d. in the bone marrow and thalmus during the self tolerance test e. when B cells respond to T-independent antigens 30) An adaptive immune response is initiated by the presence of which molecules? a. complement b. interferon c. histamine d. antibody e. antigen 31) Once you have been exposed to an antigen, you develop immunity against the same antigen because. a. antibodies against the disease are constantly circulating in your blood b. certain lymphocytes enable the rapid formation of the proper antibodies c. your innate defenses are strengthened d. B cells are stimulated to quickly engulf invaders e. antigens are altered so that the invaders can no longer attack your tissues 32) A vaccine may contain. a. white blood cells that fight infection b. antibodies that recognize invading microbes c. inactivated disease-causing microbes d. a hormone that boosts immunity e. lymphocyte antigens 33) A type of cell that makes immunizations effective is the. a. red blood cell b. killer T cell c. killer B cell d. macrophage e. memory B cell

6 34) The antigen receptors of B cells and T cells have all of the following in common except a. variable regions b. constant regions c. 4 polypeptide chains d. presence of an epitope e. disulfide bridges 35) Cells use different signaling strategies to achieve different goals. In hormonal signaling. a. numerous cells can receive and respond to a signal produced in their vicinity b. the signal can be directed to a very specific target because a narrow space separates the target cell from the transmitting cell c. a concentration gradient between the signaling cell and its target cells is established, causing cells along the gradient to respond in different ways d. specialized cells release hormone molecules into the circulatory system, permitting distant cells to be affected e. special molecules are passed through cell junctions 36) Different types of cells can respond differently to the same signaling molecule. Which of the following explains this apparent paradox? a. Different types of cells possess different genomes. b. Different types of cells possess different proteomes. c. Different types of cells possess different types of phospholipids in their plasma membranes. d. Different cells have different patterns of carbohydrates on their cell surfaces. e. Nuclear envelope proteins vary from cell type to cell type and this means that cells respond to signaling molecules differently. 37) A small molecule that specifically binds to a larger molecule is called a(n). a. α protein b. ligand c. protein kinase d. competitive inhibitor e. DAG 38) Receptors for signal molecules. a. all work via protein kinases b. are never found in the nucleus of a cell c. may be found embedded in the plasma membrane, or found within the cytoplasm or nucleus d. all work by opening ion channels e. are only found associated with the plasma membrane 39) G-protein-linked receptors, whereas receptor tyrosine kinases. a. act by phosphorylating a protein... open an ion channel when bound to a signal molecule b. are transmembrane proteins... are found only on the cytoplasmic side of the plasma membrane c. are not enzymes... have enzymatic function d. form a dimer when activated... catalyze the transfer of a phosphate group from ATP to an amino acid e. phosphorylate the amino acid guanine... phosphorylate the amino acid threonine

7 40) If a modified form of GTP that cannot be enzymatically converted to GDP were added to a culture of cells, the likely result would be. a. the inactivation of ligand-gated ion channels b. the inactivation of G-protein-linked signaling pathways c. that the activated G proteins would remain locked in the "on" position, transmitting signal even in the absence of a signaling molecule d. the inhibition of pathways stimulated by tyrosine-kinase receptors e. receptor tyrosine kinases would be stimulated by the additional phosphate groups present in the modified GTP 41) A cell releases a cytokine, which binds to, and acts on, a neighboring cell. This represents an example of. a. paracrine signaling b. autocrine signaling c. endocrine signaling d. neuroendocrine signaling e. synaptic signaling 42) Because most chemical signals are unable to pass through the plasma membrane, the cellular action they initiate results from. a. ligand binding b. the activation of a signal transduction pathway c. direct stimulation of the cell's DNA d. the enzymatic behavior of the signal molecule e. binding to intracellular receptors 43) What is the role of a second messenger in hormone action? a. It signals a cell to secrete a hormone. b. It informs a gland as to whether its hormones are having an effect. c. It relays a hormone's message inside a target cell. d. It stops hormone action when it is no longer needed. e. All of the listed responses are correct. 44) Which sequence below correctly describes the maintenance of glucose synthesis? a. low blood sugar, pancreatic beta cells stimulated, insulin released, breakdown of glycogen in target cells b. low blood sugar, pancreatic alpha cells stimulated, glucagon released, breakdown of glycogen in target cells c. high blood sugar, pancreatic alpha cells stimulated, insulin released, uptake of glucose by target cells d. high blood sugar, pancreatic alpha cells stimulated, glucagon released, glycogen synthesis in liver e. None of the listed responses is correct.

8 45) Which of the following endocrine organs only stores hormones produced by the hypothalamus? a. thyroid b. adrenal cortex c. adrenal medulla d. anterior pituitary e. posterior pituitary 46) Which of the following hormones specifically act(s) to trigger secretion of hormones by another endocrine gland? a. thyroid hormones (T3 and T4) b. prolactin c. adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) d. antidiuretic hormone (ADH) e. melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) 47) Which of the following hormones have antagonistic effects? a. oxytocin and prolactin b. insulin and glucagon c. growth hormone and epinephrine d. adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) and antidiuretic hormone (ADH) e. epinephrine and adrenaline 48) As a young girl, Maria suffered a head injury that damaged her pituitary. An injury to the pituitary is particularly serious because of all the functions controlled by this gland. As Maria got older, she and her doctors found that all of the following EXCEPT her were affected. a. metabolic rate b. growth c. menstrual cycle d. water regulation e. blood sugar level 49) The major tropic action of growth hormone is to signal the to release. a. thyroid... T3 and T4 b. pancreas... glucagon c. liver... insulin-like growth factors (IGFs) d. hypothalamus... thyroid-releasing hormone e. adrenal medulla... epinephrine 50) Which of the following endocrine glands releases steroid hormones? a. anterior pituitary b. posterior pituitary c. adrenal medulla d. adrenal cortex e. pineal gland