UNIVERSITY OF BOLTON RAK ACADEMIC CENTRE PSYCHOLOGY SEMESTER TWO EXAMINATION 2017/2018 COGNITIVE AND BIOPSYCHOLOGICAL PERSPECTIVES MODULE NO: PSC4003

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1 OCD057 UNIVERSITY OF BOLTON RAK ACADEMIC CENTRE PSYCHOLOGY SEMESTER TWO EXAMINATION 2017/2018 COGNITIVE AND BIOPSYCHOLOGICAL PERSPECTIVES MODULE NO: PSC4003 Date: Wednesday 23 May 2018 Time: 4:00 6:00 pm INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES: Candidates are advised that the examiners attach importance to legibility of writing and clarity of expression. YOU ARE STRONGLY ADVISED TO PLAN YOUR ANSWERS. There are 60 questions on this paper. Answer 60 questions. All questions carry equal marks.

2 Page 2 of The main aim of Cognitive is the scientific study of: a. Behavioural outputs b. Mental structure c. Mental processes d. Unconscious processes 2. Which approach provides Cognitive with a theoretical framework regarding the functioning of the Mind? a. Connectionist b. Information processing c. Computational Modeling d. Artificial Intelligence 3. Why is the measurement of behaviour during the performance of cognitive tasks important for Cognitive? a. It provides information regarding stimulus-response associations b. It provides objective data regarding the neural basis of cognition c. It provides objectively observable data d. It provides information regarding underlying mental processes 4. One of the guiding assumptions of Cognitive is that: a. Information processing is unlimited b. Information processing is lawful c. Perception is exclusively data-driven d. Perception is exclusively concept-driven 5. Sternberg s (1966) study on Short Term Memory search reaction time is an example which type of processing? a. Bottom-up b. Top-down c. Serial d. Parallel

3 Page 3 of The theoretical model of cognition suggesting that activation is spread between linked conceptual nodes and links is referred to as: a. Connectionist Model b. Information Processing Approach c. Semantic Networks d. Products Results 7. The definition of perception as the construction of an internal representation of the world implies that these representations are: a. Mirror images of the physical world b. Exact illustrations of the physical world c. Subjective models of the physical world d. Passive replicas of the physical world 8. In which of the following aspects is top-down processing distinct from bottomup processing? a. Sensory information is passively absorbed b. It relies directly on sensory data c. Involves making inferences from sensory data d. Depends exclusively on stored concepts 9. Visual illusions are an example of which type of processing? a. Bottom-up b. Top-down c. Serial d. Parallel 10. According to Gibson s (1966) theory of direct perception, what is motion parallax an example of? a. A theory-driven notion of distance b. A data-driven notion of distance c. A socially-constructed notion of distance d. A concept-based notion of distance

4 Page 4 of According to the Gestalt laws of perceptual organisation, which is the ultimate drive behind the tendency to integrate individual stimuli? a. Understand spatial relationships b. Identify elements c. Derive meaning d. All of the above 12. According to Marr s (1982) Computational Theory of Visual Perception, until which stage of object recognition is the representation dependent from the viewer s perspective? a. Raw Image b. Primal Sketch c. 2 ½ D Sketch d. 3 D Model 13. Biederman s (1987) Recognition by Components Model of Visual Perception is able to account for: a. Recognising different objects with similar features b. Recognising distinct exemplars of the same object c. Recognising objects from different perspectives d. All of the above 14. What type of attention is an example of a bottom-up process? a. Voluntary Attention b. Involuntary Attention c. Selective Attention d. Spatial Attention 15. According to Broadbent s (1958) Filter Theory of Attention, which type of information-processing occurs after the Attentional Bottleneck? a. Serial b. Parallel c. Both serial and parallel d. None of the above

5 Page 5 of If during a dichotic listening task a participant is instructed to shadow the message presented to one ear, which of the following stimuli presented on the unattended channel is more likely to be noticed? a. A switch in language b. A switch to a non-language c. The participant s name d. A repetition of the same word 17. To which level did Treisman s (1964) theory of selective attention suggested that unattended information was processed? a. Physical b. Sensorial c. Perceptual d. Semantic 18. According to late-selection theories of attention, when does selection of information occur? a. After sensorial processing b. After perceptual processing c. After semantic processing d. After full processing 19. Controlled processing is better explained by which model of attention? a. Early-selection b. Late-selection c. Attenuator d. Filter 20. Which type of attention model is able to account for the effect of subliminal messages? a. Early-selection b. Late-selection c. Both d. None

6 Page 6 of The Stroop Test s requirement that information is processed in a controlled manner requires inhibiting which prepotent type of information processing? a. Bottom-up b. Parallel c. Automatic d. None of the above 22. The conversion of visually presented stimuli, such as written words, into sounds can be described as an example of: a. Encoding b. Consolidation c. Storage d. Retrieval 23. Which of the following can be used as examples to illustrate the suggestion that information is actively organized in Memory? a. Evidence suggesting that using category names as retrieval cues facilitates recall of items on a list b. Evidence that items with similar meanings may be activated by the same trigger c. Evidence suggesting that recall of items is improved by recreating the context and state in which learning of those items occurred d. All of the above 24. If the typical pattern of errors in recalling items from a list is based on their acoustic properties, what does it suggest in terms of the format in which information was encoded? a. Information was coded visually b. Information was coded semantically c. Information was coded phonologically d. Information was coded abstractly 25. Which of the following Working Memory component is responsible for rehearsal of acoustically encoded information? a. Central Executive b. Visuo-spatial Sketch Pad c. Phonological Loop d. All of the above

7 Page 7 of Memory for automatic activities, such as handwriting or riding a bike is described as? a. Episodic memory b. Semantic memory c. Procedural memory d. Declarative memory 27. The primacy effect is explained as reflecting: a. Information still present on the STM store b. Information already processed and transferred to the LTM store c. Information available on the Sensory memory store d. Information actively encoded into semantic networks 28. Which model of Executive Function associates behavioural decisions with previously experienced bodily responses? a. The Working Memory Model b. The Supervisory Attentional System c. The Somatic Marker Hypothesis d. All of the above 29. According to Damásio (1994), how do Somatic Markers influence behaviour? a. By refreshing stored information regarding the present task s demands b. By modulating the activity level of Schema Control Units c. By simulating a physiological state associated with a given behaviour d. All of the above 30. Norman and Shallice s (1986) Supervisory Attentional System plays a key role in terms of: a. Activating Schema Control Units b. Monitoring the activity level of Schema Control Units c. Selecting the appropriate Schema Control Units d. Ending the activation of Schema Control Units

8 Page 8 of The part of the nervous system that controls involuntary functions e.g. heart and breathing rate, is termed? a. Supervisory b. Autonomic c. Autosomatic d. Spinal 32. Which brain structure is connected to the pituitary gland a. Hypothalamus b. Cerebellum c. Striatum d. Fornix 33. Incoming auditory information passes through the a. Dorsal spine b. Optic nerve c. Thalamus d. Medulla 34. Language is generally processed in which cortical area a. Left temporal b. Right occipital c. Right frontal d. Right parietal 35. The orbital gyrus is located in which lobe? a. Parietal b. Occipital c. Frontal d. Limbic 36. Dendrites have large surface areas due to a. Plaques b. Fibrils c. Boutons d. Spines

9 Page 9 of The threshold for an action potential to occur is a mv b. 5 mv c. 40 mv d. - 55mV 38. During an action potential the neuron depolarizes as the polarity inside the axon changes from a. Neutral to negative b. Negative to positive c. Negative to neutral d. Positive to neutral 39. Astrocytes are a. Sensory neurons b. Glial cells c. Motor neurons d. Autonomic cells 40. ATP is a source of a. Energy b. Myelin c. Dopamine production d. Neural regeneration 41. A precursor of serotonin is a. Oxidase b. Tryptophan c. ACh d. Glutamate 42. Epinephrine and dopamine are a. Monoamines b. Neuropeptides c. Protein chains d. Endorphins

10 Page 10 of The two meso dopamine pathways are a. Basal and striatal b. Anterior and cortical c. Limbic and cortical d. Limbic and striatal 44. Acetylcholine is found at the a. Neuromuscular junction b. Sensory horn c. Neurofibrillary junction d. Dermal level 45. An inhibitory post-synaptic potential will tend to a. Depolarise a neuron b. Increase agitation c. Increase firing rates d. Decrease firing rates 46. In Parkinson s deep brain stimulation targets nuclei in the a. Peripheral nervous system b. Basal ganglia c. Primary motor cortex d. Medial cerebellum 47. Pressure detectors in the skin are called a. Stem cells b. Pacinian corpuscles c. Oligodendrocytes d. Gliomas 48. Incoming sensory information followed by muscle activation depends on a. Sympathetic to parasympathetic pathways b. Efferent to afferent pathways c. Afferent to efferent pathways d. Dopamine pathways

11 Page 11 of Huntingdon s chorea is caused by abnormalities in a. Limbic structures b. Basal ganglia structures c. Cortical structures d. The cingulate cortex 50. The supplementary motor area is implicated in (the) a. Planning of movements b. Incorporating visual information c. Tremors and jerks d. Balance and coordination 51. The dominant hypothesis of depression is the a. GABA hypothesis b. Cognitive hypothesis c. Monoamine hypothesis d. Inhibitory regulation hypothesis 52. Diazepam belongs to a class of drugs known as benzodiazepines. It is used to treat anxiety, it is a a. Glutamate agonist b. Dopamine agonist c. GABA antagonist d. GABA agonist 53. Monoamine oxidase is a (n) a. Precursor b. Enzyme c. Hormone d. Peptide 54. Cocaine withdrawal effects are caused by a. Depletion of dopamine b. Increased serotonin c. Increased heart-rate d. Dopamine release

12 Page 12 of Pharmacokinetics relate to a. How drugs are prescribed b. How drugs affect hormones c. How drugs affect mood d. How drugs are distributed in the body 56. One negative symptom of schizophrenia is a. Apathy b. Amnesia c. Delusions d. Aggressive behaviour 57. Frontal lobe abnormalities in schizophrenia contribute to a. Visual hallucinations b. Disordered thinking c. Auditory hallucinations d. Poverty of speech 58. The probability of schizophrenia occurring in a schizophrenics identical twin is a. 5 % b. 0% c. 50% d. 100% 59. Grey matter in schizophrenia is found to be a. Reduced in volume b. Increased in intensity c. Increased specifically in occipital lobes d. Better connected to the amygdala 60. An irrational fear of being spied upon could be a a. Visual hallucination b. Persecutory delusion c. Thought insertion d. Bizarre delusion END OF QUESTIONS