Functional Neuroanatomy: Pretest

Transcription

1 Functional Neuroanatomy: Pretest Name 1. Define the term organelle. 2. What is a synapse? 3. To the best of your ability describe the process of transcription. 4. What does ganglia mean? 5. Define the term motor. 6. What is the cytoskeleton? 7. What is the difference between cerebrum and cerebellum? 8. What is the difference between DNA and RNA? 9. What does cortex mean? 10. What is the difference between a neuron and a nerve?

2 11. What is the other name for dense-core vesicles? Choose the correct A) Presynaptic element B) Secretory granules C) Synaptic vesicles D) Synaptic cleft 12. What are transporters? What is their role? Choose the correct A) Special proteins embedded in the vesicle membrane; responsible for synthesizing neurotransmitters B) Special proteins embedded in the vesicle membrane; responsible for concentrating neurotransmitters inside the vesicle C) Synthesizing enzymes for both amino acid and amine neurotransmitters; responsible for concentrating neurotransmitters inside the vesicle D) Enzymes that synthesize neurotransmitters from metabolic precursors; responsible for concentrating neurotransmitters in the synaptic cleft 13. Which of the following channels in the active zones of the synaptic terminal open when the membrane depolarizes and causes the release of synaptic vesicles? Choose the correct A) Potassium channels B) Voltage-gated sodium channels C) Sodium channels D) Voltage-gated calcium channels 14. Under what conditions are peptide neurotransmitters released from the synaptic terminal? Choose the correct A) Only in 1 in 100 action potentials B) Only with low-frequency trains of action potentials C) Every action potential D) Only with high-frequency trains of action potentials 15. What types of cells can a neuron communicate with at a synapse? Choose the correct A) Glandular cell B) Another neuron; Muscle cell; Glandular cell C) Muscle cell D) Another neuron 16. Identify the neuroscientists who first proved the existence of electrical synapses. Choose the correct A) Toshio Narahashi and Otto Loewi B) Edwin Furshpan and David Potter C) Bernard Katz and John Eccles D) Alan Hodgkin and Andrew Huxley

3 17. What is synaptic integration? Choose the correct A) A process by which multiple synaptic potentials combine within one postsynaptic neuron B) Adding together all EPSPs generated by a single neuron C) A method of comparing the amplitudes of miniature postsynaptic potentials D) Adding together all IPSPs generated by a single neuron 18. What are second messengers? Choose the correct A) Special proteins that span a 3-nm gap between two cell membranes B) Molecules that activate additional enzymes in the cytosol C) Voltage-gated ion channels D) Peptide neurotransmitters 19. Quantal analysis shows that a single action potential at the neuromuscular junction causes an EPSP of 40 mv or more vs. only a few tenths of a millivolt at many CNS synapses. What accounts for this difference? Choose the correct A) A larger number of transmitter molecules within the synaptic vesicles of a motor neuron compared with CNS synapses B) A larger synaptic cleft at neuromuscular junction compared with CNS synapses C) A larger number of synaptic vesicles releasing neurotransmitter at the neuromuscular junction compared with CNS synapses D) Larger receptors at the neuromuscular junction compared with CNS synapses 20. What is the effect of activating G-protein-coupled neurotransmitter receptors? Choose the correct A) Activate enzymes that generate intracellular second messengers B) Activate effector proteins such as ion channels or those that generate intracellular second messengers C) Neither does it activate effector proteins such as ion channels nor those that generate intracellular second messengers D) Activate effector proteins such as ion channels 21. What is a gap junction? Choose the correct A) Chemical synapse B) Synapse between a neuron and a glandular cell C) Synapse between a neuron and a muscle cell D) Electrical synapse

4 22. How are released neurotransmitters cleared from the synaptic cleft? Choose the correct A) Enzymatic destruction and diffusion; Exocytosis; Endocytosis B) Enzymatic destruction and diffusion C) Exocytosis D) Endocytosis 23. How do nerve gases interfere with synaptic transmission at the neuromuscular junction? Choose the correct A) By inhibiting the enzyme AChE B) By increasing the availability of AChE C) By exhausting the number of synaptic vesicles in the synaptic terminal D) By blocking transmitter-gated ion channels at neuromuscular junction 24. Why are neuromuscular junctions such reliable synapses? Choose the correct A) Because the presynaptic terminal contains a large number of active zones B) Because the axon terminal is so large; the presynaptic terminal contains a large number of active zones and the motor end-plate contains a series of shallow folds C) Because the axon terminal is so large D) Because the motor end-plate contains a series of shallow folds 25. The effectiveness of an excitatory synapse in triggering an action potential depends on how near the synapse is to the spike-initiation zone and the properties of the dendritic membrane. 26. Opening of the chloride channel allows Cl ions to cross the membrane, bringing membrane potential toward E Cl, about 65 mv. If the membrane potential was 40 mv when these channels opened, it would therefore result in an overall inward current. 27. Second messengers can alter cellular metabolism by activating additional enzymes in the cytosol. 28. If the postsynaptic cell is an interneuron that uses GABA as a neurotransmitter, the excitation of the cell will result in the inhibition of its synaptic targets.

5 29. Acetylcholine is a peptide transmitter. 30. Protein phosphorylation can change the conformation of a protein, thereby changing its activity. 31. Why are G-protein-gated ion channels called the shortcut pathway? Choose the correct A) Because they do not involve any other chemical intermediaries B) Because they activate downstream enzymes that alter neuronal function C) Because they are faster than neurotransmitter-gated ion channels D) Because of their effects on the second messenger cascade 32. Which of the following differentiates the AMPA and the NMDA glutamate-gated channels? Choose the correct A) The activation of NMDA receptors can cause widespread and lasting changes in the postsynaptic neuron. B) The NMDA-gated channels are permeable to both Na + and Ca 2+ ; The inward current through NMDA-gated channels is voltage-dependent; The activation of NMDA receptors can cause widespread and lasting changes in the postsynaptic neuron C) The inward current through NMDA-gated channels is voltage-dependent. D) The NMDA-gated channels are permeable to both Na + and Ca Where is ChAT produced? Choose the correct A) Synaptic vesicles B) Axon terminal C) Postsynaptic membrane D) Soma 34. Brain slices are bathed in a concentrated K + solution to stimulate neurotransmitter release. Why must Ca 2+ ions also be present in the bathing solution? Choose the correct A) Transmitter release requires the entry of Ca 2+ into the axon terminal. B) It stimulates many synapses in a region of the brain. C) It helps keep the brain slices alive. D) It causes a large membrane depolarization.

6 35. Which of the following mediate most of the synaptic inhibition in the CNS? Choose the correct A) Glutamate and glycine B) GABA and glutamate C) Glycine and glycerine D) GABA and glycine 36. Which of the following could serve as the ligand in the ligand-binding methods of studying neurotransmitter receptors? Choose the correct A) Agonist, antagonist, and the same neurotransmitter B) The same neurotransmitter C) Agonist D) Antagonist 37. What is unusual about endocannabinoids or endogenous cannabinoids? Choose the correct A) They play an important role in the brain systems that regulate mood. B) They float in the membrane like adenylyl cyclase. C) They are retrograde messengers by which postsynaptic neurons act on presynaptic terminals. D) They contain a chemical structure called catechol. 38. Which of the following is a glutamate receptor subtype? Choose the correct A) AMPA receptor B) Kainate receptor C) NMDA receptor, AMPA receptor, and kainate receptor D) NMDA receptor 39. What is microionophoresis? Choose the correct A) Method of applying small amounts of neurotransmitter candidates to the surface of neurons B) Method of miniaturizing the brain for more efficient study C) Movement of ions over extremely small distances D) Method of removing small amounts of neurotransmitter from the synaptic terminal 40. Which of the following describes immunocytochemistry? Choose the correct A) A method used to assess the postsynaptic actions of a transmitter candidate B) A method of localizing specific mrna transcripts for proteins C) The use of antibodies to visualize specific molecules within the brain cells D) The use of radioactivity to localize neurotransmitters and their synthesizing enzymes

7 41. Which chemical structure unifies catecholaminergic neurons? Choose the correct A) Catechol B) Adrenaline C) Norepinephrine D) Dopamine 42. Why does ACh slow the heart rate? Choose the correct A) It stimulates nicotinic receptors that open potassium channels. B) It stimulates nicotinc receptors that close potassium channels. C) It stimulates muscarinic receptors that close potassium channels. D) It stimulates muscarinic receptors that open potassium channels. 43. Which of the following statements about the nicotinic and muscarinic receptor subtypes is correct? Choose the correct A) Nicotinic receptors are antagonized by atropine. B) Nicotinic receptors are found in the skeletal muscle while muscarinic receptors are found in the cardiac muscle. C) Muscarinic receptors are antagonized by curare. D) Muscarinic receptors are found in the skeletal muscle while nicotinic receptors are found in the cardiac muscle. 44. The amino acid tyrosine is the precursor for three different amine neurotransmitters: dopamine, norepinephrine, and epinephrine. 45. The transmission of G-protein-coupled receptors involves two steps: binding to the receptor protein and G-proteins activation. 46. Dale's principle states that a neuron may contain at least two different neurotransmitters. 47. GABAergic neurons are a major source of synaptic inhibition in the nervous system.

8 48. The choline transporter is a neuronal membrane transporter that shuttles from the extracellular space into the cytosol of the axon terminal. On the other hand, the ACh transporter concentrates the neurotransmitter in the. Both move the transmitter molecules against their 49. All catecholaminergic neurons contain the enzyme that catalyzes the first step in catecholamine synthesis the conversion of tyrosine to. 50. Which of the following is the most posterior cerebral lobe in the brain? Choose the correct A) Parietal lobe B) Frontal lobe C) Temporal lobe D) Occipital lobe 51. Axons of the nervous system are described as afferent and efferent according to the direction in which they carry information. Which of the following represents an efferent projection? Choose the correct A) Sensory input to the spinal cord, Motor output of the spinal cord, Interneurons in the spinal cord B) Sensory input to the spinal cord C) Motor output of the spinal cord D) Interneurons in the spinal cord 52. The central nervous system is derived from which tissue? Choose the correct A) Ectoderm B) Endoderm C) Neural crest D) Mesoderm 53. Which of the following is a functional imaging technique capable of detecting changes in blood flow or metabolism? Choose the correct A) Computed tomography B) Positron emission tomography C) X-rays D) Magnetic resonance imaging

9 54. Which of the following mediates vital bodily functions? Choose the correct A) Brain stem B) Meninges C) Cerebrum D) Cerebellum 55. At what point do the somatic sensory axons enter the spinal cord? Choose the correct A) Ventral roots B) Ventral root ganglia C) Dorsal roots D) Dorsal root ganglia 56. Which side of the cerebellum affects the movements of the right hand? Choose the correct A) Left B) Dorsal C) Right D) Frontal 57. Where is CSF produced? Choose the correct A) Subarachnoid space B) Diencephalon C) Arachnoid villi D) Choroid plexus in the cerebral ventricles 58. The eyes are derived from which of the following embryonic zones? Choose the correct A) Neural crest B) Mesencephalon C) Telencephalon D) Diencephalon 59. What is neurulation? Choose the correct A) The process by which the neural crest becomes the neural tube B) The process by which the neural plate becomes the neural tube C) Neuron genesis D) Synaptogenesis

10 60. Which membrane lies closest to the brain? Choose the correct A) Arachnoid B) Meninges C) Pia mater D) Dura mater 61. What are the advantages of MRI over CT scan? Choose the correct A) Images of brain slices can be made in any plane desired B) Does not use X-irradiation C) Does not use X-irradiation, Yields a more detailed map of the brain, Images of brain slices can be made in any plane desired D) Yields a more detailed map of the brain 62. Which major white matter system bridges the cerebral hemispheres? Choose the correct A) Internal capsule B) Dorsal columns C) Posterior capsule D) Corpus callosum 63. Which of the following is derived from telencephalon? Choose the correct A) Cerebral hemispheres B) Cerebellum C) Hypothalamus D) Thalamus 64. Damage to the corticospinal tract in the midbrain on one side produces a loss of voluntary control of movement on the opposite side of the body. 65. Cortical cytoarchitectonics refers to the layered arrangement of nerve cell bodies, their processes, and the white matter in the cerebral cortex. 66. Neurons in the olfactory bulbs are often referred to as the gateway to the cerebral cortex.

11 67. The retina is part of the peripheral nervous system. 68. The crossing of axons of each pyramidal tract from one side of the midline to the other where the medulla joins the spinal cord is called the. 69. The three primary embryonic vesicles are the prosencephalon or the, the mesencephalon or the, and the rhombencephalon or the. 70. Describe Otto Loewi's classic experiment proving the existence of chemical transmission. 71. Black widow spider venom effects receptors for the neurotransmitter glycine. 72. A family of proteins which are critically involved in neurotransmitter release by docking synaptic vesicles to the presynaptic membrane and assisting in fusion of the two membranes are called. 73. Define shunting inhibition. 74. What is lambda? What does it stand for? What does it tell you about the properties of a cell's membrane? 75. The channel is both ligand- and voltage-gated. 76. Tryptophan hydroxlyase is one of two enzymes involved in the synthesis of from. 77. Transmitter-gated ion channels all possess M regions, which are segments where the polypeptides coil into alpha helices to span the membrane.

12 78. Activation of adenylyl cyclase occurs due to the activity of ; while inhibition occurs due to the activity of. A) G s ; G i B) G q ; G i C) G i ; G s D) none of the above 79. PIP 2 activates PLC which in turn splits into PKC and DAG. 80. All neurons with cell bodies in in the PNS derive from (a specific type of ectodermal tissue). 81. A nerve is a bundle of axons in the PNS; is the term for a bundle of axons in the CNS. 82. What is cerebral lateralization? 83. Single source divergent neurons generally exert a modulatory influence using biogenic amines that act on GPCRs. 84. The parasympathetic postganglionic neurotransmitter is. 85. The three deep nuclei of the basal ganglia are the:, and. 86. The thoracolumbar nervous system is also known as the nervous system.

13 87. Associate the appropriate function (letter, below) with its cranial nerve: X ; IV ; XII ; VII ; I. Write none if the proper function is not given. A) Sensation of taste B) Sensation to face C) Sensation of smell D) Movement of tongue 88. For paravertebral ganglia, pre- and postganglionic fibers contact each other near their target organ. 89. What is an association area? 90. The rhombencephalon differentiates into the which becomes the cerebellum and pons, and the which becomes the medulla.