Psychology S09 Final Exam Study Guide

Transcription

1 Name Date 1. The pursuit of knowledge for its own sake is called a. basic science c. clinical psychology b. applied science d. educational psychology 2. A complex explanation based on findings from many studies is a(n) a. hypothesis c. applied science b. basic science d. theory 3. Which of the following is NOT associated with B.F. Skinner? a. Walden Two c. reinforcement b. free association d. behaviorism 4. The first modern psychologist was a. Sigmund Freud c. Sir Francis Galton b. Wilhelm Wundt d. B.F. Skinner 5. Which of the following is associated with Abraham Maslow and Carl Rogers? a. clinical psychology c. humanistic psychology b. developmental psychology d. all of the above 6. Psychologists who use psychological principles to solve immediate problems are practicing a. basic science c. psychiatry b. applied science d. behaviorism 7. Participants in an experiment who are exposed to the independent variable are called the group. a. control c. variable b. experimental d. single-blind 8. When neither the participants nor the experimenter knows which group of participants is the experimental one, the study is known as a. placebo study c. single-blind study b. longitudinal study d. double-blind study 9. In studies, psychologists study the same group of participants at regular intervals over a period of years. a. biased c. cross-sectional b. survey d. longitudinal 10. The variable that experimenters manipulate is called the variable. a. independent c. hypothetical b. intervening d. dependent 11. The cardinal rule of naturalistic observation is to a. properly control the study s variables c. avoid disturbing the participants b. find cooperative participants d. secure a stratified sample 12. When researchers unwittingly bring about the situation they expected to find, they have created a a. self-fulfilling prophecy c. single-blind study b. placebo effect d. double-blind study

2 13. The best way for an experimenter to eliminate any possibilities that she might unconsciously find what she expects to find is by using a. a single-blind study c. a placebo experiment b. a double-blind study d. a self-fulfilling prophecy 14. Psychologists call the internally programmed growth of a child a. development c. maturation b. assimilation d. socialization 15. A newborn infant has certain automatic movements called a. instincts c. schemas b. reflexes d. formal operations 16. An infant who has developed object permanence a. is attached to specific objects b. will see all objects as the same c. knows that an object exists even if it cannot be see d. cries when objects are taken away 17. Sigmund Freud believed that children were born with urges. a. neither sexual nor aggressive c. aggressive but not sexual b. sexual but not aggressive d. sexual and aggressive 18. A person s behavior usually develops as a result of a. attitudes only c. environment only b. heredity only d. both heredity and environment 19. When children engage in, they are able to picture things in their minds. a. representational thought c. egocentric thought b. conservation d. attachment 20. Which of the following parenting styles allows children and adolescents to participate in decisions that affect their lives? a. authoritarian family c. permissive family b. democratic family d. laissez-faire family 21. All of the following statements about adolescence are true EXCEPT a. the number of teen suicides has increased b. troubled adolescents usually outgrow their problems c. adolescents behave unpredictably d. belonging to a clique is important 22. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of girls who mature early? a. they are more quarrelsome b. they are more popular in late teens c. they have a favorable self-image in late teens d. they are proud of height and figure at first 23. Simone, a typical adolescent, will most likely turn to her peers for advice on a. marriage c. fashion b. religion d. educational plans

3 24. A person s gender role is defined by a. one s genetic makeup b. cultural influences c. traditionally masculine or feminine behavior d. all of the above 25. Which of the following does NOT characterize adolescent thought and behavior? a. decisiveness c. hypothetical propositions b. abstract thinking d. rationalization 26. An androgynous role is one that a. reflects traditionally feminine characteristics b. combines traditional male and female characteristics c. reflects traditionally male characteristics d. combine various gender stereotypes 27. Which of the following events does NOT occur at approximately the same time as the others? a. puberty c. adolescence b. menarche d. menopause 28. Boys who mature early a. are more self-confident c. do not do as well in early adulthood b. tend to withdraw and rebel d. they tend to be followers instead of leaders 29. When discussing what they do not like about themselves, most adolescents mention their a. mental abilities c. physical appearance b. financial standing d. athletic ability 30. Which of the following may teens avoid by choosing abstinence? a. unwanted pregnancies c. sexually transmitted diseases b. loss of self-respect d. all of the above 31. If adolescents develop a messiah complex, they think they can a. convert others to their religion c. excel in every way b. save the world from evil d. none of the above 32. Which of the following is NOT a problem adolescents might develop as a result of immaturity and abstract thought processes? a. vulnerability c. apparent hypocrisy b. self-consciousness d. frequent arguments 33. Peer groups tend to set the standards on such matter as a. marriage and religion c. educational plans b. most basic values d. fashion and music preferences 34. Adolescents have that may lead to risky behavior and juvenile delinquency. a. a messiah complex c. an illusion of invulnerability b. high self-esteem d. a fear of the future 35. One of the areas with the most significant differences between males and females is a. math ability c. verbal ability b. aggression d. the number of friends they have

4 36. Which of the following changes in appearances occur during middle age? a. weight loss c. loose skin develops b. hair starts turning gray d. growth spurts 37. For most people, what is the first stage of adjusting to death? a. anger c. bargaining b. denial d. depression 38. Depression is most common among a. adolescent boys c. middle-aged men b. adolescent girls d. middle aged women 39. Which of the following is NOT one of the three most common causes of death in later adulthood? a. cancer c. Alzheimer s disease b. cirrhosis of the liver d. heart disease 40. Which of the following is NOT a major cause of death among the elderly? a. cancer c. heart disease b. rheumatoid arthritis d. strokes 41. During the stage of dying, people are likely to alienate themselves from others. a. anger c. bargaining b. denial d. depression 42. Many Americans today have no direct experience with death because a. people no long go to funerals in large numbers b. extended families insulate us from death c. people are afraid of dying d. people die in nursing homes and hospitals 43. The goal of hospice care is to a. improve the quality of life c. avoid the use of drugs b. prolong life d. cure the patient s illness 44. Which of the following is in the correct order of the stages of adjusting to dying and death as defined by Elisabeth Kubler-Ross? a. anger, denial, bargaining, depression, acceptance b. bargaining, anger, denial, acceptance, depression c. denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance d. denial, bargaining, anger, depression, acceptance 45. Elderly people who experience a loss of control often develop a. a fear of dying c. rigidity b. a negative self-concept d. Alzheimer s disease 46 business wisdom, Erik Erickson would say that Alberto is exhibiting a. despair c. generativity b. stagnation d. ego integrity 47. According to Erik Erickson, a unsuccessful midlife transition for men fosters a sense of a. integrity c. generativity b. stagnation d. resolution

5 48. The autonomic nervous system regulates the action of the a. central nervous system c. somatic nervous system b. involuntary muscles and organs d. voluntary skeletal muscles 49. The nervous system and endocrine system a. release hormones into the bloodstream b. amplify messages produced by neurons c. protect the spinal cord d. send information to and from the brain 50. In the nature-nurture question, nature refers to a. environmental factors c. biological makeup b. culture d. individual experiences 51. The brain and the spinal cord make up a. the somatic nervous system c. central nervous system b. hypothalamus d. autonomic nervous system 52. Regions of the cerebral cortex are referred to as a. lesions c. lobes b. the pons d. the corpus callosum 53. Which of the following is NOT a basic part of a neuron? a. axon c. dendrite b. medulla d. myelin sheath 54. Which of the following hormones is important to the physical development of men? a. testosterone c. estrogen b. adrenaline d. progesterone 55. An injury to the spinal cord a. could result in paralysis b. could prevent the transmittal of messages from the brain c. could interview with the transmittal of messages to the muscles d. could result in all of the above 56. Which of the following is NOT true of identical twins? a. the share the same genes c. the share many common behaviors b. the develop from two fertilized eggs d. the may have similar habits 57. The endocrine system sends chemical messages called a. neurotransmitters c. lesions b. synapses d. hormones 58. The part of the brain that integrates sensory information and relays it upward is the a. hindbrain c. forebrain b. midbrain d. pons 59. A band of fibers called the connects the cerebral hemispheres? a. occipital lobe c. motor cortex b. corpus callosum d. somatosensory cortex

6 60. When a person is angry or frightened, the glands become active. a. pineal c. pituitary b. adrenal d. thyroid 61. Ovaries produce which two hormones? a. estrogen and testosterone c. epinephrine and progesterone b. estrogen and progesterone d. testosterone and norepinephrine 62. A type of altered consciousness in which people become highly suggestible is called a. meditation c. hypnosis b. relaxation d. biofeedback 63. Sensations or perceptions without any external cause are a. illusions c. hallucinations b. delusions d. daydreams 64. Sleepwalking has been linked to a. insomnia c. hallucinations b. REM sleep d. stress and fatigue 65. Which of the following does NOT characterize any stage of sleep? a. usually limited physical mobility b. altered state of consciousness c. responsiveness to the environment d. rapid eye movement 66. Which of the following is NOT a common use of hypnosis? a. to help people forget c. to aid memory b. to help people learn d. to manage pain 67. Which of the following is NOT something that can commonly be controlled with biofeedback? a. a single muscle c. sleep b. brain waves d. heart rate 68. is the most widely used mind-altering substance in the US a. Marijuana c. Alcohol b. Opium d. LSD 69. Which of the following is generally NOT a reason that people abuse drugs? a. to fit in with peers b. to avoid boredom c. to feel good d. to gain control 70. You do not constantly feel your clothing on your body because of a. Weber s law c. sensory adaptation b. Kinesthesis d. difference threshold 71. The absolute threshold is the that a person can detect half the time. a. greatest change in a stimulus c. smallest change in a stimulus b. weakest amount of a stimulus d. greatest amount of a stimulus

7 72. Specialized receptor cells responsible for night vision are called a. lenses c. rods b. pupils d. cones 73. Smell receptors send messages to the brain via the. a. olfactory nerve c. optic nerve b. auditory nerve d. vestibular nerve 74. Which of the following is NOT a Gestalt principle? a. proximity c. similarity b. continuity d. illusion 75. Which of the following explains the phenomenon of being able to follow one person s voice at a noisy meeting? a. perceptual inference c. subliminal perception b. figure-ground perception d. depth perception 76. Light enters the eye through the a. pupil c. retina b. lens d. cornea 77. The smallest increase or decrease in the intensity of stimulus that a person can detect is a. the absolute threshold c. psychophysics b. the just noticeable difference d. Weber s Law 78. Figure-ground perception is important in both and. a. hearing and vision c. hearing and balance b. vision and taste d. taste and touch 79. We rely on when we assume that a steep hill in the distance will not cause the highway we are on to come to an abrupt halt. a. depth perception c. subliminal perception b. perceptual inference d. perceptual compensation 80. Rods are to a zebra as cones are to a. a. elephant c. Dalmatian b. black lab puppy d. parrot

8 81. The following is an example of what Gestalt principle? a. Simplicity b. Closure c. Proximity d. None of the above 82. The following are examples of what principle of perception? a. Gestalt b. Figureground perception c. Weber s Law d. Just noticeable difference 83. The fact that you can see more detail on objects that are closer to you in the picture below is an example of what binocular depth cue? a. Relative height b. Interposition c. Light and shadows d. Texturedensity gradient 84. In classical conditioning, the best results occur when the conditioned stimulus is presented a. after the unconditioned response c. alone b. with the unconditioned response d. before the unconditioned response

9 85. A subject responding to a second stimulus similar to the original CS is an example of a. discrimination c. preconditioning b. generalization d. taste 86. Learning from the consequences of behavior is called a. classical conditioning c. operant conditioning b. avoidance conditioning d. shaping 87. An unpleasant consequence that decreases the frequency of the response that produced it is called a. negative reinforcement c. classical conditioning b. punishment d. avoidance learning 88. A child saying, daddy only to his father is an example of a. extinction c. discrimination b. generalization d. an unconditioned response 89. In human society, money serves as a a. primary reinforcer c. response chain b. secondary reinforcer d. token economy 90. Individuals who believe that no matter what they do their actions make no difference are exhibiting a. aversive control c. learned helplessness b. extinction d. response chains 91. An individual watches a friends send an message. When the individual is alter able to send an message, the type of learning exhibited is a. latent c. classical b. self-controlled d. observational 92. A child falls off his bike while trying to ride down a steep ramp and cuts his chin. A few days later, the boy cautiously but successfully rides down the ramp. Later, when trying the ramp again, he suddenly panics,. His fear reaction has made a a. extinct response c. conditioned response b. generalization d. spontaneous recovery 93. You were frightened at a move while a certain song was playing in the background. The next week you hear the song on the radio. Your heart races. The music has become a(n) a. conditioned stimulus c. conditioned response b. unconditioned stimulus d. unconditioned response 94. A reinforcement schedule that results in consistently high productivity a. fixed ratio schedule c. fixed chain schedule b. variable ratio schedule d. variable-chain schedule 95. Examples of primary reinforcers for humans include a. money food, and clothing c. money, clothing, and social approval b. prestige, social approval, and power d. food, clothing, and rest periods

10 96. You are with a friend who is speeding and driving recklessly. You arrive safely at your destination without being stopped by the police. You have had your driver s license for three months and have always been cautious in your driving. After your experience with your friend you decide that speeding does not really matter. Your decision to speed is an example of a. behavior modification n c. observational learning b. latent learning d. disinhibition 97. You have a job in a retail store at a mall. You are paid every Friday for the previous week s work. Your pay schedule is a a. fixed ratio c. variable chain b. fixed interval d. variable interval 98. To improve memory, you may link new information to material that is already known in a. maintenance rehearsal c. elaborative rehearsal b. confabulation d. reconstructing 99. In encoding memory, which of the following do you use when you attempt to keep mental pictures of the information? a. acoustic codes c. sensory codes b. semantic codes d. visual codes 100. The things you have in your conscious mind right now are being held in you a. sensory memory c. long-term memory b. working memory d. none of the above 101. Time of occurrence is important in memory. a. echoic c. episodic b. iconic d. semantic 102. Chunking is associated with a. sensory storage c. short-term memory b. long-term memory d. recognition 103. Short-term memory a. lasts without rehearsal c. lasts about one-half second b. lasts about one minute d. has a limited capacity 104. Which of the following describes your ability to identify the sound of a musical instrument you have heard before? a. recall c. semantic memory b. recognition d. echoic memory 105. The three memory processes are a. encoding, storage, and retrieval c. storage, encoding, and recognition b. chunking, retrieval, and storage d. rehearsal, storage, and reconstruction 106. HOMES, an acronym for the five Great Lakes (Huron, Ontario, Michigan, Erie, Superior), is an example of a. maintenance rehearsal c. mnemonic device b. eidetic memory d,. semantic memory

11 107. Remembering how to jump rope, a skill you have not practiced in many years, is an example of which kind of memory? a. semantic c. declarative b. episodic d. procedural 108. The aha experience or suddenly realize the solution to a problem is called a. functional fixedness c. insight b. a concept d. symbolic thinking 109. The most primitive units of thought are a. images c. designs b. words d. sounds 110. In, thoughts flow freely with no particular plan. a. directed thinking c. Nondirected thinking b. convergent thinking d. metacognition 111. Which of the following is NOT a unit of thought? a. concept c. algorithm b. symbol d. image 112. Maria would like to cute a coupon out of the newspaper but she cannot find her scissors. is keeping her from using her pocketknife for this purpose. a. Functional fixedness c. Directed thinking b. Rigidity d. Both A and B are correct 113. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of creativity? a. a mental set c. recombination b. flexibility d. insight 114. Animals are to concepts as dogs are to a. rule c. image b. prototype d. concept 115. Which of the following is NOT an obstacle to problem solving? a. rigidity c. functional fixedness b. algorithm d. mental set 116. Changing boy small bike large rode into the small boy rode a large bike is an example of a. morpheme c. phonemes b. language development d. syntax