SCHOOL OF ANATOMICAL SCIENCES. ANATOMY FOR BNurs II and BPharm II (ANAT 2005, 2031) TEST 1: 28 th March TOTAL TIME: 2 Hours TOTAL MARKS: 100

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1 SCHOOL OF ANATOMICAL SCIENCES ANATOMY FOR BNurs II and BPharm II (ANAT 2005, 2031) TEST 1: 28 th March 2012 TOTAL TIME: 2 Hours TOTAL MARKS: 100 This test consists of two papers; Paper I (60 marks) will consist of Gross Anatomy questions and Paper II (40 marks) of Histology questions. Instructions: 1. Answer all questions. 2. Write your Anatomy number on each answer book/mcq sheet. SECTION A: MCQ s Write your name, the degree for which you are registered, your student number, and anatomy test number on the Faculty of Health Sciences side of the computer sheet. i) On the circles side of the computer sheet in the block headed student number write your student number. Fill in the circles with a soft HB pencil. ii) There is one type of MCQ question in this paper: X-Type: For this type of question there are five (5) options each must be marked as either CORRECT or INCORRECT. For each question at least one of the options will be correct and one incorrect. You need to have an answer for each of the five (5) statements. iii) iv) DO NOT use CORRECTION FLUID on your MCQ sheet. You may use an eraser with care. DO NOT fold or bend the computer card. v) The computer sheet MUST be filled in during the examination time. NO TIME WILL BE ALLOWED after the end of the examination for filling in the sheet. SECTION B: WRITTEN ANSWER QUESTIONS i. Answer all Gross Anatomy questions in the COLOURED book and all Histology questions in the WHITE book. ii. Relevant and correctly labelled diagrams may be used to enhance your answers. iii. ONLY scripts written in blue or black ink will be marked. Pencil may be used ONLY for drawings. Page 1 of 8

2 PAPER 1 60 MARKS SECTION A: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 36 MARKS 1. The following structures are found on the proximal end of the Humerus: a. anatomical neck b. greater tubercle c. lesser tubercle d. intertrochanteris crest e. deltoid tubercle 2. General features of a synovial joint include: a. bones are connected by a fibrous capsule b. no joint cavity is present c. the articular surfaces are covered in articular cartilage d. limited movement is possible due to the presence of a synovial membrane e. ligaments which support the joints may be situated either intracapsularly or extracapsularly 3. The following criteria are used to side a patella: a. the base of the patella must be situated inferiorly b. the apex of the patella must be situated inferiorly c. with the apex pointing inferiorly, the side the bone falls on is the side of the body the bone belongs to d. the larger articular facet is always the medial one. e. the smooth convex surface must be situated facing anteriorly 4. With the body in the anatomical position, the meaning of the terms of position are: a. Anterior front b. Lateral to the side c. Posterior below d. Superior behind e. Medial towards the middle 5. The pelvic girdle: a. is made up of 4 bones, namely the 2 Os Coxa, a sacrum and coccyx bone b. can be divided into the pelvic inlet, cavity and outlet c. has a true pelvis which houses the most inferior organs of the abdomen d. has a false pelvis which houses the bladder and uterus (in females) e. is held together by 2 sacroiliac joints and the pubic symphysis 6. The distal end of the Femur has the following features: a. medial and lateral condyles separated by the intercondylar notch b. the articular surface for the patella on the posterior surface c. medial and lateral epicondyles situated superior to the condyles d. the adductor tubercle that is continuous with the lateral epicondyle e. the linea aspera on the posterior surface Page 2 of 8

3 7. The distal end of the fibula: a. forms the triangular lateral malleolus which is subcutaneous b. has a depression behind and below the articular facet called the malleolar fossa c. has a medial border which gives attachment to the interosseous membrane d. articulates with the tibia e. articulates with the calcaneus 8. The following are examples of synovial joints: a. glenohumeral/shoulder joint b. sternocostal joint c. pubic symphysis d. knee joint e. atlantoaxial joint 9. The shoulder joint is: a. a ball and socket joint b. highly mobile c. very stable d. stabilized by the rotator cuff muscles e. not capable of circumduction 10. The following is an example of a synovial ellipsoid joint: a. wrist/radiocarpal joint b. knee Joint c. atlantoaxial joint d. temporomandibular joint e. acromioclavicular joint 11. The following bone classifications are associated with the axial skeleton: a. flat b. long c. short d. sesamoid e. irregular 12. The Humerus: a. is a bone of the forearm b. articulates with the scapula to form the shoulder joint c. contains two condyles on its proximal end d. articulates with the radius and ulna to form the elbow joint e. contains the medial epicondyle just superior to the trochlea 13. Biceps brachii: a. is a muscle of the anterior compartment of the arm b. is a flexor c. is a supinator d. is innervated by the median nerve e. has one belly Page 3 of 8

4 14. The abdominal cavity: a. is bordered superiorly by the pelvic diaphragm b. houses the mediastium c. is bordered almost exclusively by bones d. contains the liver e. is lined by the peritoneum 15. The anterior compartment of the upper arm: a. is innervated by the median nerve b. is supplied by the posterior circumflex artery c. includes the teres major muscle d. houses the primary flexors of the elbow joint e. includes the brachioradialis muscle 16. The occipital bone: a. exclusively ossifies in membrane b. is the most posterior bone in the cranial vault c. houses the temporal lobe of the brain d. encloses the foramen magnum e. articulates with the frontal bone at the coronal suture 17. The following descriptions form part of the anatomical position: a. eyes facing forward, facial expression neutral b. arms abducted c. toes pointing to the side d. thumbs pointing away from body e. forearms supinated 18. The thoracic cage contains: a. 7 paired typical ribs b. 13 thoracic vertebrae c. 7 paired sternocostal joints d. a sternum posteriorly e. 2 paired floating ribs Page 4 of 8

5 SECTION B: SHORT QUESTIONS 24 MARKS QUESTION 1 1. With the aid of a simple annotated diagram, briefly describe the curvatures of the vertebral column. (2 marks) 2. Concerning the joints in the thoracic segment of the vertebral column, fill in the empty spaces Joint description Name Class Between vertebral bodies Between vertebral arches (1/2 mark each) QUESTION 2 Tabulate the foramina and other apertures of the middle cranial fossa and the structures traversing them (10 marks) QUESTION Name the muscles that comprise the anterior compartment of the forearm and give details of their innervation. (5 marks) 3.2 Name the components of the rotator cuff and correctly list their general attachments to the proximal humerus. What critical function do these muscles perform? (5 marks) Page 5 of 8

6 PAPER 2: HISTOLOGY & EMBRYOLOGY SECTION A: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 40 MARKS 16 MARKS 1. The plasma membrane: a. is a bilaminar structure b. has integral proteins c. has lipid rafts d. is positively charged e. contains cholesterol 2. Stratified epithelium: a. may be found in the excretory ducts of exocrine glands b. is the epithelial lining of the urinary bladder c. is found lining blood vessels d. has a basal lamina e. has cilia on the apical surface 3. Eccrine sweat gland: a. is classified as a simple branched tubular gland b. exhibits merocrine mode of secretion c. is found in thick skin d. is a mucous secreting gland e. secretion is composed mainly of water 4. Dense irregular connective tissue: a. is composed primarily of elastic fibres b. is found in the dermis of skin c. is found in tendons d. has little ground substance e. has tensile strength in all directions 5. With regard to hyaline cartilage: a. provides structural support in the trachea b. chondrocytes maintain the extracellular matrix c. the interterritorial matrix stains darkly basophilic d. it has a rich blood supply e. it is highly hydrated 6. Fibroblasts: a. are the principal cells of connective tissue b. are derived from monocytes c. secrete connective tissue fibres d. are involved in wound repair e. have a phagocytic function Page 6 of 8

7 7. Monocytes: a. are the largest of the white blood cells b. have a bi-lobed nucleus c. have azurophilic cytoplasmic granules d. transform into macrophages e. secretes antibodies 8. The following processes take place in the first week of development: a. capacitation b. acrosome reaction c. notochord formation d. primitive streak formation e. cleavage Page 7 of 8

8 SECTION B: SHORT ESSAY QUESTIONS 24 MARKS QUESTION 1 a. Draw two well labelled diagrams to compare the histological structure (40x magnification) of cardiac muscle fibres and purkinje fibres. (4.5 marks) b. Give one main function for each of these fibres. (2 marks) c. Identify three structures involved in the communication between cardiac muscle fibres (found in the region of the intercalated disc) (1.5 marks) [Total: 8 marks] QUESTION 2 a. Draw a fully labelled diagram illustrating the histological structure of compact bone (6 marks) b. What is the main organic constituent in bone matrix? (1 mark) c. Which type/s of growth occurs in compact bone? (1 mark) [Total: 8 marks] QUESTION 3 Describe the process of neurulation [Total: 8 marks] Page 8 of 8