3. Because of homeostasis, large external changes cause internal changes.

Transcription

1 Biology 30S Page 1 I: Wellness and Homeostasis 1. In a negative feedback mechanism, an effector is a A) muscle. B) gland. C) answers A) and B) D) none of the above 2. Which of the following is an example of negative feedback? A) Air conditioning goes off when room temperature lowers. B) Insulin decreases blood sugar levels after eating a meal. C) Heart rate increases when blood pressure drops. D) all of the above 3. Because of homeostasis, large external changes cause internal changes. A) large B) small C) no D) large, then small 4. Which of the following organ systems is involved in osmoregulation? A) nervous system B) excretory system C) circulatory system D) all of the above 5. Which of the following describes active transport? A) Molecules are moved against the concentration gradient using energy. B) Small molecules are pushed into the tissue fluid by blood pressure. C) Molecules are moved with the concentration gradient without using energy. D) Water moves across the cell membrane. 6. How many of the conditions below would affect the rate of diffusion across a semipermeable membrane? temperature size of molecule concentration gradient A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3

2 Biology 30S Page 2 7. Referring to the diagram of an ATP molecule below, what occurs when the bond labelled X is broken? A) energy is released B) energy is absorbed C) water is released D) water is absorbed 8. Which of the following does NOT require ATP? A) endocytosis B) facilitated transport C) active transport D) pinocytosis 9. The diagram below is an example of A) endocytosis. B) exocytosis. C) facilitated transport. D) osmosis. 10. Which of the following molecules CANNOT pass through the phospholipid bilayer? A) glucose molecules B) carbon dioxide molecules C) water molecules D) oxygen molecules II: Digestion and Nutrition 11. Which sphincter is found between the stomach and the small intestine? A) ileocecal B) pyloric C) gastric D) cardiac

3 Biology 30S Page What are the 2 roles of bile in the digestive system? A) digests proteins and neutralizes acids B) emulsifies fats and digests proteins C) neutralizes acids and emulsifies fats D) neutralizes acids and digests fats 13. Which of the following best describes saliva? A) Saliva contains an enzyme which digests protein. B) Saliva contains an enzyme which digests lipids. C) Saliva contains an enzyme which digests starch. D) Saliva contains a chemical which helps to emulsify lipids. 14. The inactive substance pepsinogen is converted to pepsin A) in the duodenum. B) in the presence of hydrochloric acid in the stomach. C) in the pancreas. D) only when high concentrations of salt are present in the stomach. 15. Celiac disease causes the villi in a person s digestive tract to be attacked by their own immune system and the villi become damaged. Which of the following statements best describes what will happen to a person with Celiac disease? A) absorption of water is decreased B) digestion of proteins is decreased C) absorption of nutrients is decreased D) digestion of lipids is decreased 16. Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver? A) produces vitamins B) converts glycogen to glucose C) produces digestive enzymes D) processes nutrients before they are sent to body cells 17. Vitamins and minerals are important to us because they A) provide energy. B) help enzymes catalyze chemical reactions. C) stimulate the liver to make HDL. D) increase the amount of nutrients absorbed.

4 Biology 30S Page According the graph below, this enzyme would be found in the Rate of Reaction by Enzyme X Reaction Rate ph A) mouth. B) small intestine. C) stomach. D) large intestine. 19. Which of the following sources of nutrients are high in carbohydrates? A) eggs, beans B) beef, chicken C) milk, cheese D) bread, fruits 20. The large intestine is so-named because it exceeds the small intestine in A) number of enzymes produced. B) length. C) diameter. D) amount of muscle present. 21. Which substances are secreted into the small intestine? A) hydrochloric acid, pancreatic juice, and intestinal juice B) salivary amylase, bile, and pancreatic juice C) bile, hydrochloric acid, and pepsin D) bile, pancreatic juice, and intestinal juice 22. Which of the following situations would most likely result from the removal of a substantial part of the large intestine? A) incomplete digestion B) reduced water reabsorption C) poor nutrient absorption D) reduced secretion of bile

5 Biology 30S Page Which of the following statements regarding hormone production and blood sugar levels is true? A) as glucagon increases, blood sugar level decreases B) as glucagon decreases, blood sugar level increases C) as insulin increases, blood sugar level increases D) as insulin increases, blood sugar level decreases 24. Chemical digestion does NOT occur in which of the following part of the alimentary canal? A) large intestine B) stomach C) mouth D) duodenum 25. What substances is absorbed by the lacteals? A) nucleotides B) proteins C) lipids D) carbohydrates III: Transportation and Respiration 26. What type of cell is the most numerous in a healthy person s blood? A) thrombocyte B) erythrocyte C) lymphocyte D) leukocyte 27. What structures are shown in the diagram below? A) platelets and red blood cells B) red blood cells and white blood cells C) platelets and white blood cells D) white blood cells and plasma proteins 28. Some of the body s blood vessels are fitted with valves. These vessels are the A) veins only. B) arteries only. C) capillaries only. D) veins, arteries, and capillaries.

6 Biology 30S Page Which blood vessels constrict to increase blood pressure? A) veins only B) arteries only C) capillaries only D) veins, arteries, and capillaries 30. Which of the following is NOT true of a person with type AB blood? A) They have neither antibody A nor antibody B in their plasma. B) Their blood group is called the universal recipient. C) They can receive only type AB blood if a transfusion is necessary. D) Their blood type is the least common in the Canadian population. 31. Which of the following shows the correct order of the cardiac cycle? A) entire heart relaxes, atria contract/ventricles relax, entire heart relaxes, atria relax/ventricles contract B) ventricles contract/atria relax, atria contract/ventricles relax, entire heart relaxes C) atria contract/ventricles relax, atria relax/ventricles contract, entire heart relaxes D) atria contract/ventricles contract, entire heart relaxes 32. The proper order of an electrical impulse in the heart is A) AV node, SA node, Purkinje fibres, Bundle of His. B) SA node, AV node, Purkinje fibres, Bundle of His. C) SA node, AV node, Bundle of His, Purkinje fibres. D) AV node, SA node, Bundle of His, Purkinje fibres. 33. Contraction of which heart chamber forces blood into the aorta? A) right atrium B) left atrium C) right ventricle D) left ventricle 34. The only vein in the body that transports oxygen-rich blood is the A) coronary vein. B) hepatic portal vein. C) pulmonary vein. D) aortic vein. 35. The terms systole and diastole refer to A) sounds from the heart. B) the major artery and vein from and to the heart. C) heart contractions and relaxation. D) rates of heart pulse.

7 Biology 30S Page Blood returning from the legs enters the heart through the A) pulmonary vein. B) superior vena cava. C) pulmonary artery. D) inferior vena cava. 37. How many of the substances would be found in relatively higher concentrations at point Y when compared to point X? Cells A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) Where does lymphatic fluid enter the blood stream? A) the subclavian vein B) the jugular vein C) the aorta D) the pulmonary vein 39. In what part of the heart would you find the thickest muscle? A) right atrium B) left atrium C) right ventricle D) left ventricle 40. Which of the following would be considered a healthy blood pressure? A) 90/55 B) 90/160 C) 120/80 D) 160/ What is the instrument used to measure blood pressure? A) spirometer B) EKG C) sphygmomanometer D) stethoscope

8 Biology 30S Page The diagrams below illustrate cross-sectional views of three different types of blood vessels. Which of the following correctly describes the characteristics of each blood vessel? VESSEL X VESSEL Y VESSEL Z contraction of skeletal A) carries blood to the heart contains one-way valves muscle aids blood flow exchanges gases, blood velocity is highest carries blood toward the B) nutrients and wastes with in this type of vessel heart tissue fluid smooth muscle allows carries blood from the carries blood toward the C) D) for contraction contraction of skeletal muscle aids blood flow heart smooth muscle allows for contraction heart blood velocity is lowest in this type of vessel 43. Which of the following is NOT a function of the blood circulatory system? A) to filter out bacteria B) supply food and oxygen to the cells C) to carry hormones from one part of the body to another D) to distribute heat generated by the cells 44. The flow of blood between the heart and the lungs is called circulation, whereas the flow of blood to all body systems is called circulation. A) cardiac, pulmonary B) systemic, cardiac C) pulmonary, systemic D) pulmonary, cardiac 45. The production of ATP is produced in A) external respiration. B) internal respiration. C) metabolic respiration. D) cellular respiration.

9 Biology 30S Page Which of the following directs mucous towards the pharynx? A) cilia in the trachea B) cartilage in the bronchi C) elastic fibers in the larynx D) the contraction of the diaphragm 47. The structure that prevents foods and liquids from entering the trachea is called the A) larynx. B) pharynx. C) epiglottis. D) uvula. 48. Using the list below, how many of the events listed occur during inhalation? air rushes into the lungs the rib cage moves up and out the thoracic cavity increases in volume the diaphragm becomes dome-shaped pressure in the thoracic cavity decreases A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) Chemoreceptors that measure oxygen levels of the blood are located in the A) arteries. B) lungs. C) medulla oblongata. D) diaphragm. 50. The delicate membrane coverings of the inner thoracic cavity and the lungs is called a(n) membrane. A) pleural B) respiratory C) thoracic D) epidermal 51. All of the following statements about human lungs are correct EXCEPT A) lungs are muscular. B) lungs are elastic. C) lungs are surrounded by pleura. D) lungs are above the diaphragm. 52. Which chemical in the blood has the greatest effect on breathing rate? A) hemoglobin B) carbon dioxide C) plasma D) oxygen

10 Biology 30S Page Oxygenation of blood takes place in the lungs. Which of the following statements best describes oxygenation? A) both oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse into the blood B) both oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse out of the blood C) oxygen diffuses out of the blood, carbon dioxide diffuses into the blood D) oxygen diffuses into the blood, carbon dioxide diffuses out of the blood 54. Hemoglobin transports A) all of the oxygen and carbon dioxide. B) most of the oxygen and some of the carbon dioxide. C) most of the oxygen and none of the carbon dioxide. D) most of the oxygen and most of the carbon dioxide. 55. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of nasal breathing over mouth (oral) breathing? A) filtering air B) inhaling air C) moistening air D) warming air IV: Excretion and Waste Management 56. Metabolic wastes include all of the following EXCEPT A) carbon dioxide B) feces C) urea D) salts 57. Which of the following results from the secretion of ADH? URINE CONCENTRATION VOLUME OF URINE A) low low B) low high C) high high D) high low 58. In which part of the nephron does filtration take place? A) collecting duct B) proximal convoluted tubules C) Loop of Henle D) Bowman s capsule

11 Biology 30S Page Using the list below, how many of the organs listed are involved in excreting excess water? kidneys lungs liver skin A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) Which substance(s), under normal conditions, is/are completely reabsorbed? i.) water ii.) salt iii.) glucose A) only i B) only ii C) only iii D) ii and iii 61. Urea is formed from the metabolism of A) proteins. B) fats. C) carbohydrates. D) sugars. 62. Amino acids are reabsorbed by A) active transport. B) diffusion. C) osmosis. D) reverse transport. 63. An obstruction in a ureter would interfere with A) urine entering the kidneys. B) urine entering the urinary bladder. C) blood entering the kidneys. D) bile entering the urinary bladder. 64. Consumption of alcohol will cause A) decreased aldosterone levels. B) decreased ADH levels. C) decreased urine production. D) none of the above.

12 Biology 30S Page 12 Use the following diagram to answer questions The structure containing blood with the LOWEST concentration of urea is A) 1. B) 2. C) 4. D) Which substance can be found in 1 but NOT found in 3? A) glucose B) water C) mineral salts D) red blood cells 67. The nephron above uses structure #6 to A) reabsorb water. B) secrete wastes. C) produce the filtrate. D) excrete wastes. V: Protection and Control 68. The inflammatory response to a pathogen is a reaction of the body that causes each of the following EXCEPT A) swelling. B) numbness. C) redness. D) warmth. 69. Which of the following types of cells are responsible for phagocytosis? A) suppressor T cell B) T cells C) B cells D) macrophages

13 Biology 30S Page The type of cells which makes the antibodies to help fight a pathogen are A) macrophages. B) neutrophils. C) T cells. D) B cells. 71. An individual who has had the measles will rarely get the illness again because of the process of A) inborn immunity. B) active immunity. C) passive immunity. D) maternal immunity. 72. Antibodies are formed in response to A) platelets. B) antigens. C) white blood cells. D) red blood cells. 73. A baby will benefit from immunity when they are breast-fed. A) primary B) active C) passive D) secondary 74. What is an example of a secondary response? A) a vaccine preventing you from getting a certain virus B) getting the flu twice in one winter C) eyes that produce more tears during the allergy season D) none of the above 75. Which of the following statements about lymph nodes is FALSE? A) Lymph nodes serve as sites for the production of antibodies. B) White blood cells are created in the lymph nodes. C) Macrophages phagocytize foreign material in the lymph. D) Lymph nodes serve as sites where antigens stimulate the immune system. 76. Lymph nodes may be located in the human body in the tissues of the A) stomach and brain. B) thyroid gland and adrenal gland. C) ventricles and atriums. D) groin and neck. 77. Which of the following is NOT a function of the lymphatic system? A) return excess fluid to the blood B) transport lipids absorbed from the digestive system C) production of red blood cells D) defend the body against pathogens

14 Biology 30S Page The first type of cell to encounter a pathogen in the tissue would be a A) macrophage. B) B cell. C) T cell. D) suppressor T cell. 79. What are the two main anatomical parts of the central nervous system? A) cranial and spinal nerves B) spinal nerves and spinal cord C) spinal cord and brain D) brain and cranial nerves 80. What is the control system that is most active while you are at rest? A) sympathetic nervous system B) somatic nervous system C) central nervous system D) parasympathetic nervous system 81. The release of norepinephrine will cause A) pupils to constrict. B) bronchioles to constrict. C) increased production of adrenalin. D) increased production of saliva. 82. What part of the brain receives sensory information and sends it to the appropriate areas of the cerebrum? A) the thalamus B) the cerebellum C) the hypothalamus D) the corpus callosum 83. If an injured person's heart and respiration rates varied unexpectedly, one might suspect damage to the A) cerebrum. B) medulla oblongata. C) spinal cord. D) cerebellum. 84. If damage to the brain leads to difficulties in voluntary muscle response and speech, what area of the brain is most likely affected? A) pituitary gland B) hypothalamus C) cerebrum D) medulla oblongata 85. Which of the following is NOT part of the brainstem? A) hypothalamus B) pons C) medulla oblongata D) midbrain

15 Biology 30S Page 15 Use the following diagram to answer questions R 86. Which letter indicates an interneuron? A) V B) X C) Y D) Z 87. Which letter indicates an effector? A) R B) S C) U D) W 88. Which structure carries impulses away from the central nervous system? A) U B) V C) W D) Z 89. Which branch of the nervous system does NOT have nerves which directly connect to the heart? A) the central nervous system B) the peripheral nervous system C) the sympathetic nervous system D) the parasympathetic nervous system 90. Which of the following would require the greatest activity in the cerebellum? A) recalling a memory B) smelling freshly baked bread C) adding numbers in your head D) performing a gymnastic routine

16 Biology 30S Page 16 Use the following diagram to answer questions W 91. Where would a Node of Ranvier be found? A) W B) X C) Y D) Z 92. Which of the following occurs if the neuron is stimulated at Y? A) The nerve impulse will travel to Z and then stimulate an effector. B) The nerve impulse will travel to X and then to the brain. C) The nerve impulse will travel to a sensory receptor located at Z. D) The nerve impulse will travel to X and stimulate the release of neurotransmitters. 93. Which structure releases neurotransmitters? A) W B) X C) Y D) Z 94. Areas for hearing are located in the cerebrum s A) parietal lobe. B) occipital lobe. C) thoracic lobe. D) temporal lobe. 95. When a person touches a hot object, her or his arm immediately pulls away from that object. This is an example of A) a reflex arc. B) a feedback loop. C) antagonistic nervous control. D) conscious nervous reaction. 96. The gap between the axon terminal end of one neuron and the dendrite of another neuron is called the A) nyoneural junction. B) neuromuscular junction. C) synapse. D) myelin gap.

17 Biology 30S Page Which is true of the circled area of an axon? A) Sodium ions move to the outside and potassium ions move to the inside B) Sodium ions move to the inside and potassium ions move to the outside C) Both the sodium and potassium ions move to the inside D) Both the sodium and potassium ions move to the outside 98. How does the presence of the myelin sheath around a neuron increase the speed of impulse conduction? A) It prevents ion exchange except at the nodes. B) It transfers ions down the length of the neuron. C) It acts as an enzyme to speed the reactions of the action potential. D) It helps to carry ions across the cell membrane during the action potential. VI: Wellness and Homeostatic Changes 99. Which of the following is NOT one of the ways in which aging affects the body? A) skin becomes thinner and less elastic B) increase in bone density C) metabolic rate decreases D) increase in autoimmune diseases 100. If you want to donate your organs in Manitoba A) you should discuss your decision with your family. B) you should sign an organ and tissue donor s card. C) both answers A) and B). D) you will have to wait because it is currently illegal.

18 Biology 30S Page 18 EXTENDED ANSWERS (70 marks 35% of exam mark) I: Written Responses (55 marks) Homeostasis and Cell Transport (7 marks) 1. Define homeostasis and provide two examples of homeostasis in the human body. (2 marks)

19 Biology 30S Page Explain how negative feedback maintains homeostasis. Be sure to include the different components that are necessary for negative feedback to work properly. (2 marks)

20 Biology 30S Page Read the following sentences and determine if each sentence is correct or incorrect. If the sentence is correct, write correct. If the sentence is incorrect, rewrite the sentence to make it correct. (3 marks) a) Endocytosis and exocytosis are a form of passive transport. b) Osmosis is the movement of water from an area of low water concentration to an area of high water concentration. c) Pinocytosis is the movement of liquids across the cell membrane by endocytosis. Digestion and Nutrition (11 marks) 1. Contrast the effects that insulin and glucagon have on the body. (2 marks)

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22 Biology 30S Page Using all of the symbols below as often as necessary, produce a diagram to illustrate how enzymes function. Explain your diagram. (4 marks: 2 marks for diagram; 2 marks for explanation) Explanation:

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24 Biology 30S Page For each of the following nutrients, identify the starting point of chemical digestion, and a source for each. (3 marks) Nutrient Digestion Start Point Source of Nutrient Lipids/Fats Proteins Carbohydrates 4. List 4 ways that food is mechanically (physically) digested in the body. (2 marks) i.) ii.) iii.) iv.) Transportation and Respiration (14 marks) 1. Based on each description, indicate which blood type is being described. (2 marks) Have only B antigens on their red blood cells. Blood type = Have A & B antibodies in their blood plasma. Are considered universal donors. Blood type = Blood type = Have only B antibodies in their blood plasma. Blood type =

25 Biology 30S Page Pulmonary edema is when fluid is pushed into the alveoli. As the heart fails, pressure in the pulmonary vein starts to rise. As the pressure increases, fluid is pushed into alveoli. This fluid interrupts normal oxygen movement through the lungs, resulting in shortness of breath. Pulmonary edema may be a complication of a leaking valve. Which valve, if leaking, would cause pulmonary edema? Explain your answer. (2 marks) 3. For each of the following components of blood, indicate their function and an alternative name. (3 marks) Blood Component Function Alternative Name Red Blood Cell White Blood Cell

26 Biology 30S Page 26 Platelet

27 Biology 30S Page Read each description and fill in the blank with one of the following types of blood vessels: (3 marks) artery vein capillary A) Are only one cell thick Blood Vessel: B) Has valves to prevent backflow Blood Vessel: C) Has the lowest blood pressure Blood Vessel: D) Has chemoreceptors for oxygen in blood Blood Vessel: E) Returns blood back to the heart Blood Vessel: F) Has a thick middle layer of muscle Blood Vessel: 5. Define the follow processes: a) External respiration (1 mark) b) Internal respiration (1 mark) c) Cellular respiration (1 mark)

28 Biology 30S Page List what muscles in our body allow us to inhale. (1 mark)

29 Biology 30S Page 29 Excretion and Waste Management (6 marks) 1. Define the terms filtration, reabsorption and secretion in the nephron. (3 marks) Filtration: Reabsorption: Secretion: 2. Answer the following questions regarding urea. (3 marks) a) Where is urea produced in the body? (0.5 mark) b) How is urea produced in the body? (1.5 marks)

30 Biology 30S Page 30 c) Which organs may be involved in the excretion or urea? (1 mark)

31 Biology 30S Page 31 Protection and Control (12 marks) 1. List 2 specific examples of the body s First Line of Defense. (2 marks) i.) ii.) 2. Circle the following term that does not belong with the others and provide an explanation. (4 marks) a) medulla oblongata, midbrain, pons, thalamus b) cerebrospinal fluid, corpus callosum, cranium, meninges c) effector, interneuron, neurotransmitter, receptor d) depolarization, potassium ions, sodium ions, synapse

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33 Biology 30S Page What is the difference between passive and active immunity? (1 mark) 4. Using the word bank provided, fill in the blanks regarding how an impulse travels between two neurons. Terms in the word bank may be used more than once. (3 marks) called neurotransmitters vesicles bulb myelin synapse nodes of Ranvier enzymes axon sodium/potassium dendrite An impulse traveling down the axon of the first neuron eventually causes molecules to be released from tiny bubbles called that are located inside the axon s. The then diffuse across the (ie. the gap) and bind to receptors in the of a second neuron, causing an action-potential (ie. change in polarity) in the second neuron. 5. Which part of the brain is responsible for each of the following: (2 marks) Coordination, posture, and balance? _ Conscious thought? Sorting out impulses entering the brain?

34 Biology 30S Page 34 Controlling breathing, the heartbeat and blood pressure?

35 Biology 30S Page 35 Homeostatic Control (5 marks) 1. Explain how your respiratory system maintains a homeostatic state regarding any one of the following: CO2 levels in your blood, when you are doing heavy exercise O2 levels in your blood when you are doing heavy exercise blood sugar levels when you are doing heavy exercise temperature control in your body when you are doing heavy exercise Include stimulus, receptors, regulatory control centre, effectors, and response in your answer. A negative feedback cycle may be used to answer this question. (5 marks)

36 Biology 30S Page 36 II: Diagrams (15 marks total) Digestive System (4 marks) Name the parts of the digestive system shown

37 Biology 30S Page Circulatory System (4 marks) Name the parts of the heart shown.

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39 Biology 30S Page 39 Urinary System (3 marks) Name the parts of the nephron shown

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41 Biology 30S Page 41 Nervous System (4 marks) Name the lobes of the brain shown