Biology Human Anatomy February 28, 2000 Section # 005 Exam # Midterm Examination #2

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1 Biology Human Anatomy Name: KEY February 28, 2000 Section # 005 Exam # Midterm Examination #2 Directions: This exam consists of 45 multiple choice questions worth 2 points each and 10 true/false questions worth 1 point each for a total of 100 points. There are 5 bonus questions worth one point each at the end of the exam. Answer all questions on the scantron form provided for you. Be sure to put your name, section number, exam # (from the top of this exam) and date on your scantron or you will not receive full credit. Mutliple Choice Questions (2 points each) 1. Which of the following types of bone would NOT be found in the navicular bone? a. compact b. trabecular c. spongy d. cancellous e. all of the above WOULD be found in the navicular bone 2. Which of the following bones develops via intramembranous ossification? a. xiphoid b. humerus c. mandible d. atlas e. scapula 3. Bursitis is: a. The inflammation of a synarthrotic joint b. The inflammation of a meniscus c. The inflammation of a synovial joint d. The inflammation of a synovial sac e. None of the above 4. The following are major steps in the process of endochondral ossification: 1. blood vessels invade the diaphysis of the bone 2. blood vessels invade the epiphyses of the bone 3. the cartilage model grows in length and thickness 4. osteoblasts begin to replace cartilage and form the primary ossification center 5. mesenchyme cells form a model of the future bone out of hyaline cartilage 6. osteoblasts begin to replace cartilage and form the secondary ossification center The correct order for these events is: a. 5,3,1,4,2,6 b. 1,3,5,4,2,6 c. 1,5,3,6,4,2 d. 6,3,1,5,4,2 5. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of cardiac muscle? a. Centrally located nuclei b. multinucleate* c. Striations d. intercalated discs e. branched cells *note: this question is technically incorrect. Sometimes cardiac muscle cells have two nuclei 1

2 6. The Z-disc in skeletal muscle represents: a. Boundary of the A-band b. Boundary of the I-band c. Sarcoplasmic reticulum d. T-tubules e. Boundary of the sarcomere 7. The A-band of skeletal muscle appears dark under the microscope due to the presence of: a. myosin b. actin c. titin d. nebulin e. all of the above 8. Which of the following is characteristic of smooth muscle? a. Intercalated discs b. striations c. multinucleate d. spindle-shaped e. none of the above 9. Articular cartilages are made up of: a. Fibrocartilage b. Hyaline cartilage c. Elastic cartilage 10. The joints between adjacent vertebrae are classified as: a. Synarthroses b. Symphyses c. Amphiarthroses d. both a and b e. both b and c 11. There is an interosseous membrane at the distal radio-ulnar joint. This joint is classified as a: a. synarthrosis b. amphiarthrosis c. gomphosis d. a and b e. b and c 12. The joint between a tooth and an alveolar process of the mandible or maxilla is classified as a: a. amphiarthrosis b. syndesmosis c. synarthrosis d. a and b e. b and c 13. A tendon sheath contains: a. A synovial membrane b. synovial fluid c. hyaline cartilage d. all of the above e. a and b 14. Lack of activity of a synovial joint makes the joint "stiff." This is because: a. There is a buildup of uric acid crystals in the joint leading to gout b. The articular cartilages start to fuse with each other c. There is a buildup of synovial fluid within the joint d. There is too little synovial fluid within the joint e. All of the above are possible reasons 15. Invaginations of the sarcolemma at the Z-discs are called: a. terminal cisternae b. Z-tubules c. T-tubules d. sarcoplasmic extensions e. none of the above 2

3 16. The connective tissue which surrounds an entire muscle is called: a. endomysium b. endoneurium c. perimysium d. epimysium e. sarcoplasm 17. Which of the following types of bone typically has two epiphyseal lines present on it? a. long b. short c. flat d. irregular e. all of the above 18. The development of bone where bone develops within connective tissue is: a. interstitial growth b. endochondral ossification c. appositional growth d. intramembranous ossification e. calcification of CT 19. The blood vessel which grows into the diaphysis of a long bone is called the: a. diaphyseal artery b. epiphyseal artery c. perichondrial artery d. periosteal artery e. nutrient artery 20. The blood vessel which grows into the epiphysis of a long bone is called the: a. diaphyseal artery b. epiphyseal artery c. perichondrial artery d. periosteal artery e. nutrient artery 21. Intercalated discs contain: a. tight junctions b. gap junctions c. hemidesmosomes d. all of the above e. b and c only 22. Which of the following muscles attaches to the acromion of the scapula? a. coracobrachialis b. biceps brachii c. brachialis d. a and b both e. none of the above 23. Which of the following muscles is classified as a muscle of facial expression? a. frontalis b. zygomaticus c. buccinator d. orbicularis oris e. all of the above 24. The temporalis muscle inserts onto the: a. condylar process of the maxilla b. coronoid process of the maxilla c. coronoid process of the mandible d. condylar process of the mandible e. skin over the forehead 3

4 25. Action of the clavicular head of the right sternocleidomastoid muscle causes: a. the neck to laterally flex to the left b. the neck to laterally flex to the right c. the neck to rotate left d. the neck to rotate right e. all of the above are possible 26. The medial attachment point for the inguinal ligament is the: a. anterior superior iliac spine b. anterior inferior iliac spine c. superior pubic ramus d. pubic tubercle e. symphysis pubis 27. The pterygoid muscles are involved with: a. smiling b. closing the mouth c. chewing d. raising the eyebrows e. none of the above 28. Small cylindrical bundles of actin and myosin within a muscle cell are called: a. myofibers b. myofibrils c. sarcomeres d. myoblasts e. myofilaments 29. Which of the following terms is used to describe a broad, flat sheet of dense regular connective tissue which provides an attachment for skeletal muscle? a. tendon b. superficial fascia c. ligament d. membrane e. aponeurosis 30. Which of the following is not a component of the axial skeleton? a. skull b. scapula c. hyoid bone d. vertebral column e. sternum 31. The lateral fibers of the deltoid muscle function in: a. supination b. adduction c. pronation d. abduction e. flexion 32. Two muscle whose actions move a joint in opposite directions are called: a. fixators b. antagonists c. agonists d. synergists e. none of the above 33. Which of the following is NOT a function of the muscles of the anterior abdominal wall? a. flexion of the trunk b. compression of the abdominal viscera c. lateral rotation of the trunk d. extension of the trunk e. increasing the intrathoracic pressure (with the airway closed) 4

5 34. All BUT which of the following muscles extend from the trunk to the scapula. a. serratus anterior b. rhomboideus major c. pectoralis major d. pectoralis minor e. trapezius. 35. Which of the following muscles does NOT attach to the humerus? a. biceps brachii b. latissimus dorsi c. teres major d. pectoralis major e. deltoid 36. Which of the following muscles does not produce movement of the arm at the shoulder joint? a. deltoid b. pectoralis major c. teres major d. rhomboideus major e. latissimus dorsi 37. Which one of the following muscles has an attachment point on the olecranon process? a. brachialis b. triceps brachii c. biceps brachii d. coracobrachialis e. flexor carpi ulnaris 38. The muscle of the medial compartment of the thigh which inserts onto the tibia is the: a. adductor longus b. pectineus c. gracilis d. adductor magnus e. adductor brevis 39. The plantar flexor muscles are located in which compartment of the leg? a. anterior b. posterior c. medial d. lateral e. inferior 40. Which of the muscles below would forcibly contract during forced expiration? a. internal intercostals b. external intercostals c. abdominal muscles d. a and b e. a and c 41. Which of the following muscles inverts the foot? a. plantaris b. peroneus longus c. fibularis d. popliteus e. tibialis posterior 42. Which of the following muscles does NOT attach to a trochanter of the femur? a. iliacus b. gluteus minimus c. psoas major d. gluteus medius e. gluteus maximus 5

6 43. The flexor digitorum longus muscle is located in the: a. lateral compartment of the leg b. posterior compartment of the forearm c. anterior compartment of the leg d. anterior compartment of the thigh e. posterior compartment of the leg 44. A synergist to the sartorius muscle at the knee would be: a. vastus medialis b. biceps femoris c. rectus femoris d. vastus lateralis e. all of the above 45. Which of the following muscles inserts on to the iliotibial tract? a. gluteus medius b. gluteus maximus c. iliopsoas d. tensor tympani e. b and d True/False Questions (1 point each) Answer the following questions on the BACK of your scantron form, starting with number The synovial membrane is made up of connective tissue. 52. Muscle tissue is characterized by its contractility and excitability. 53. The long head of the triceps brachii inserts onto the infraglenoid tubercle. 54. The teres minor muscle makes up part of the rotator cuff. 55. The insertion point for the quadriceps femoris is the tibial tuberosity. 56. The tibialis anterior muscle causes eversion of the ankle. 57. The adductor brevis muscle is deep to the adductor magnus muscle. 58. The brachialis muscle inserts onto the coronoid process of the ulna. 59. The inguinal canal contains the ovarian ligament in the female 60. The semimembranosus is a synergist to the gluteus maximus. Bonus Questions: (1 point each) True or False 6

7 61. The styloid process of the ulna is located on its distal end. 62. The calcaneus articulates with the tibia. 63. The palmaris longus muscle is located in the anterior compartment of the forearm. 64. The levator scapulae and trapezius muscles can never act as antagonists. 65. The cremaster muscle is formed from the internal oblique muscle. 7